2013年7月31日星期三

Guide de formation plus récente de GIAC G2700

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Code d'Examen: G2700

Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified ISO-2700 Specialist Practice Test)

Questions et réponses: 453 Q&As

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NO.1 You work as an Information Security Officer for uCertify Inc. You need to create an asset management
plan differentiating fixed assets from inventory items. How will you differentiate assets from inventory
items?
A. Inventory items are sold.
B. Assets are temporary usually.
C. Inventory items are permanent.
D. Assets cannot be used.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are the basics of Business Continuity Management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Implementation of a risk assessment technique to identify the causes and consequences of failures
B. Regular checking of business continuity plans
C. Identification of authentication techniques according to the requirements
D. Identification of human resources according to the requirements
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Rick works as a Computer Forensic Investigator for BlueWells Inc. He has been informed that some
confidential information is being leaked out by an employee of the company. Rick suspects that someone
is sending the information through email. He checks the emails sent by some employees to other
networks. Rick finds out that Sam, an employee of the Sales department, is continuously sending text files
that contain special symbols, graphics, and signs. Rick suspects that Sam is using the Steganography
technique to send data in a disguised form. Which of the following techniques is Sam using?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Linguistic steganography
B. Text Semagrams
C. Technical steganography
D. Perceptual masking
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 You work as a Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. You have been assigned the task to verify the
identity of the employees recruited in your organization. Which of the following components of security
deals with an employee's verification in the organization?
A. Network Security
B. Physical security
C. Access security
D. Human resource security
Answer: D

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NO.5 You work as the Human Resource Manager for uCertify Inc. You need to recruit some candidates for
the marketing department of the organization. Which of the following should be defined to the new
employees of the organization before they have joined?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Marketing tips and tricks
B. Organization's network topology
C. Job roles
D. Organization's security policy
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Which of the following are the exceptions of the Data Protection Act?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Section 36 - Domestic purposes
B. Section 28 - National security
C. Section 55 - Unlawful obtaining of personal data
D. Section 29 - Crime and taxation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 A project plan includes the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and cost estimates. Which of the following
are the parts of a project plan?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Risk identification
B. Security Threat
C. Project schedule
D. Team members list
E. Risk analysis
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.8 Which of the following administrative policy controls is usually associated with government
classifications of materials and the clearances of individuals to access those materials?
A. Separation of Duties
B. Due Care
C. Acceptable Use
D. Need to Know
Answer: D

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NO.9 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You need to make the
documentation on change management. What are the advantages of change management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Improved productivity of users due to more stable and better IT services
B. Improved IT personnel productivity, since there is a reduced number of urgent changes and a back-out
of erroneous changes
C. Improved adverse impact of changes on the quality of IT services
D. Increased ability to absorb frequent changes without making an unstable IT environment
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.10 The disciplined and structured process, that integrates information security and risk management
activities into the System Development Life Cycle, is provided by the risk management framework.
Choose the appropriate RMF steps.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is the designing phase of the ISMS?
A. Check
B. Plan
C. Act
D. Do
Answer: B

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NO.12 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on the
documentation of control A.10.1.1. What is the purpose of control A.10.1.1.?
A. It is concerned with the documentation of the human resource security to make recruitments clear to
the organization.
B. It is concerned with the documentation of the supply chain management.
C. It is concerned with the documentation of operating procedures to ensure the correct and secure use of
information processing facilities.
D. It is concerned with the documentation of the disaster recovery management to ensure proper backup
technologies.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is a fast-emerging global sector that advises individuals and corporations on
how to apply the highest ethical standards to every aspect of their business?
A. Service Capacity Management (SCM)
B. Business Capacity Management (BCM)
C. Resource Capacity Management (RCM)
D. Integrity Management Consulting
Answer: D

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NO.14 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on communication and
organization management. You need to create the documentation on change management.
Which of the following are the main objectives of change management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Minimal disruption of services
B. Reduction of inventory in accordance with revenue
C. Economic utilization of resources involved in the change
D. Reduction in back-out activities
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.15 Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents an organization's loss from a single threat. Which of the
following formulas best describes the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?
A. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF)
B. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Exposure Factor (EF)
C. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
D. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following statements are true about security risks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. These are considered as an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.
B. These can be removed completely by taking proper actions.
C. These can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.
D. These can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 Which of the following is a Restrict Anonymous registry value that allows users with explicit
anonymous permissions?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 0
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is used for secure financial transactions over the Internet?
A. ATM
B. VPN
C. SSL
D. SET
Answer: D

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NO.19 Mark works as a System Administrator for uCertify Inc. He is responsible for securing the network of
the organization. He is configuring some of the advanced features of the Windows firewall so that he can
block the client machine from responding to pings. Which of the following advanced setting types should
Mark change for accomplishing the task?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. SMTP
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following phases of the PDCA model is the monitoring and controlling phase of the
Information Security Management System (ISMS)?
A. Check
B. Plan
C. Do
D. Act
Answer: A

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NO.21 Qualitative risk analysis includes judgment, intuition, and experience. Which of the following methods
are used to perform qualitative risk analysis?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Egress filtering
B. Checklists
C. Delphi technique
D. Brainstorming
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.22 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. An employee of the organization
comes to Mark and tells him that a few months ago, the employee had filled an online bank form due to
some account related work. Today, when again visiting the site, the employee finds that some of his
personal information is still being displayed in the webpage. Which of the following types of cookies
should be disabled by Mark to resolve the issue?
A. Session
B. Temporary
C. Secure
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which of the following should be considered while calculating the costs of the outage?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Sales aspect of the business
B. Cost of low productivity
C. Innovations in electronic funds transfer
D. Cost of lost income from missed sales
Answer: B,D

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NO.24 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. The organization has constructed a cafeteria for
their employees and you are responsible to select the access control method for the cafeteria.
There are a few conditions for giving access to the employees, which are as follows:
1. Top level management can get access any time.
2. Staff members can get access during the specified hours.
3. Guests can get access only in working hours.
Which of the following access control methods is suitable to accomplish the task?
A. Discretionary access control
B. Lattice-based access control
C. Attribute-based access control
D. Rule-based access control
Answer: D

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NO.25 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
________ is a powerful and low-interaction open source honeypot.
Answer: Honeyd

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NO.26 Mark works as an Office Assistant for uCertify Inc. He is responsible for managing office documents.
Today, after opening a word document, Mark noticed that the other opened documents are closed
suddenly. After reopening those documents, Mark found some modifications in the documents. He
contacted his Security Administrator and came to know that there is a virus program installed in the
operating system. Which of the following types of virus has attacked the operating system?
A. Data file
B. Macro
C. Polymorphic
D. Boot sector
Answer: A

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NO.27 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________accord describes the minimum regulatory capital to be allocated by each bank based on its
risk profile of assets.
Answer: Basel ll

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NO.28 Which of the following are the uses of cryptography as defined in a policy document?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Backup
B. Control of keys
C. Applications supporting cryptography
D. Recovery
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.29 Which of the following controls are administrative in nature?
A. Directive controls
B. Recovery controls
C. Preventive controls
D. Detective controls
Answer: A

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NO.30 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. He has been assigned the task of
installing a MySQL server. Mark wants to monitor only the data that is directed to or originating from the
server and he also wants to monitor running processes, file system access and integrity, and user logins
for identifying malicious activities. Which of the following intrusion detection techniques will Mark use to
accomplish the task?
A. Network-based IDS
B. Signature-based IDS
C. Anomaly-based IDS
D. Host-based IDS
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: BCCPP

Nom d'Examen: Blue Coat (Blue Coat Certified Proxy Professional)

Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

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NO.1 A cookie without an expire value will___
A. last until the client cleats cookies from the browser
B. last until the client closes the browser session
C. last until the client logs off
Answer: B

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NO.2 You can NOT use a self-signed certificate when intercepting SSL traffic.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are true when attempting to deny access to file types?
A. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-type request header; File Extension objects are
matched against the GET response header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against request
data.
B. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-type response header; File Extension objects are
matched against the GET request header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against response
data.
C. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-encoding response header; File Extension objects
are matched against the GET request header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against response
data.
D. MIME type objects are matched against the Content-type response header; File Extension objects are
matched against the GET request header; Apparent Data Type objects are matched against request data.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following steps have to be performed to support Kerberos Authentication.? (Choose all that
apply)
(a)A virtual URL that resolves to the IP of the ProxySG.
(b)Registering the BCAAA as a Service Principal Name.
(c)Configuring IWA Realm.
(d)Configuring Explicit Proxy.
A.All of the above
B.None of the above
C.a, b and c only
D.b, c and d only
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following statements are true? (Choose all that apply)
(a)The SGOS object store utilizes a directory structure so that objects in cache can be accessed rapidly
(b)Information about a single object in cache be retrieved from the Management console or the
(c)There are two object caches, the object cache which resides on disk and the object cache which
resides in RAM
(d)The SGOS object store is separated by protocol (HTTP cache, FTP cache, etc.)
A.a, b and c only
B.a, c and d only
C.b, c and d only
D.All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.6 The ProxySG acts as both an ICAP client and ICAP server.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true about ProxySG Protocol Detection feature? (Choose all that
apply)
(a)Protocol detection is performed on the server's response.
(b)Protocol detection is performed on the client's request.
(c)Enabling Detect Protocol option will automatically enable early intercept attribute in proxy services.
(d)Protocol detection is performed by looking at the TCP port number.
A.a and b only
B.b and c only
C.c and d only
D.ALL of the above
Answer: D

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NO.8 The Content-encoding header is used to declare the MIME type and compression method used in a
HTTP response.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following hostnames are NOT matched by the regular expression "www (0 9) (0-9)?
\ .foo\ .com")
A. www.foo.com
B. www01.foo.com
C. www1.foo.com
D. www11.foo.com
Answer: A

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NO.10 What criterion is NOT used to determine location awareness of a ProxyClient
A. IP address range
B. Virtual NICs IP address range
C. The IP address of the closest AND concentrator
D. DNS server IP address
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which method of controlling downloads of certain file types works fastest on ProxySG?
A. Apparent Data Type
B. MIME Type
C. File extension
Answer: C

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NO.12 url.regex=!\.html$ d\ DENY What is the effect of the above CPL code?
A. Deny any URL that ends with html
B. Deny any URL that does not end with html
C. Deny any URL that ends with htm or html
D. Deny any URL that does not end with htm or html
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are true about Reverse Proxy deployment?(Choose all that apply)
(a)Forwarding hosts in the forwarding file must be defined as "server" style
(b)Default-scheme in forwarding file is supported
(c)Protocol conversion between HTTPS <- ->HTTP are automatic
(d)ProxySG should be set with default DENY policy
A.a, b and c only
B.a, c and d only
C.b, c and d only
D.All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following statements are true about dynamic bypass list? (Choose all that apply)
(a)Configured polices will not be enforced on client request if the request matches an entry in the bypass
list.
(b)Dynamic bypass entries are lost when ProxySG is restarted
(c)If request made to a site in a forwarding policy is in the bypass list, the site is inaccessible
(d)Dynamic bypass parameters can be configured on Management Console and CLI.
A.All of the above
B.a, b and c only
C.b, c and d only
D.a, c and d only
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following are obvious advantages of having a ProxySG deployed in a Reverse Proxy
environment? (Choose all that apply? (a)The ProxySG has built in DOS protection to guard the actual
web server from denial-ofservice attacks
(b)Increased performance with caching provides an improved Web Experience
(c)Consistent default behavior of cache expiration and validation directives
(d)SSL termination on ProxySG allow SSL offloading, therefore eliminating bottleneck on the web server
side.
A.All of the above
B.a, band c only
C.a, band d only
D.b, cand d only
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: adwords-search

Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Search Advertising Advanced Exam Practice Test)

Questions et réponses: 235 Q&As

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NO.1 Steve is a web marketing consultant, and he's reviewing a client's Google AdWords. Steve is
interested in the keyword analysis field on the Keywords tab, in the client's campaign. When Steve looks
at the keywords quality score, he can determine how well the keyword is likely to perform.
What is the scale that Google displays the Quality Score?
A. Very high, Moderate, Low, Poor
B. Google does not reveal the Quality Score as it is proprietary information.
C. 1 to 100
D. 1 to 10
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are a Google AdWords professional explaining how your client should create a budget for their
Google AdWords campaign. The client is confused how Google AdWords determines the lowest possible
value for the highest position of the ad. You explain that Google AdWords uses a combination of the
Quality Score and the CPC bid. The customer still isn't satisfied and wants a more in-depth explanation.
Which of the following is the best description how Google AdWords determines ad ranks in search pages?
A. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing above you by your Quality Score, then
round off to the nearest cent.
B. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the average bid of all ads competing you ¯r e you rkeywords
by your Quality Score, then round off to the nearest cent.
C. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing beneath you by your Quality Score, then
round off to the nearest cent.
D. Google AdWords considers whoever bids the highest for a keyword and then that person moves to the
top of the order.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Alice manages several AdWords accounts and she has three assistants who help with the management
of the accounts. Alice receives a phone call from one of her clients regarding recent Google AdWords
clicks. The client reports that he thinks something is amiss with his account, and thinks someone has
changed the budget. How can Alice review any changes to the account and, if necessary, determine if
someone has made changes to the account's budget.?
A. Alice should use the Change History Tool.
B. Alice should use the AdWords API.
C. Alice should use the My Client Center.
D. Alice should use the AdWords Editor.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Kelly has created two ad groups for her realty business in Ohio. In both ad groups, she's identified the
keyword 'Columbus Condos' for her ads. What problem exists within this scenario that could affect Kelly's
ads?
A. Kelly should not have keywords competing against one another.
B. Kelly should merge all the ads into one campaign so that her ads will show up twice in search results.
C. By having two ad groups with the same keyword, Kelly may pay considerably more for her ads
because the ads will appear twice in search results.
D. Kelly should only have one ad group, not multiple groups.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are a consultant for a wedding photographer, and you're helping her with her Google AdWords
account. The photographer doesn't understand why her ad for the Google Network hasn't started
generating traffic yet. You explain that the ad has just been created, and that there are three qualifications
for the ad to go live. Which of the following is NOT one of the three qualifications for an ad to go live on the
Google Network?
A. The ad must be prepaid for thirty days.
B. The ad must meet the partner requirements.
C. The ad must be opted into the Google Network.
D. The ad must be reviewed and approved.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Ronnie has created an image ad for her design business. When she searches Google, however, she's
not seeing the image ad displayed in the search results' sponsored links. Ronnie then creates a text ad for
Google, and this ad shows up in the results. She then deletes the text ad and actives the image ad again -
which still doesn't show in the Google search results' sponsored links, like the other ads. Why do you
suspect that the image ad isn't showing in the Google Search results as part of the other ads?
A. Her image ad will only appear in the Google Content Network, not in Google Search.
B. Her image ad must first be approved by Google before it'll show in the Google Search resul ts.
C. Her image is probably in a .gif format; images must be in a .jpg format.
D. Her image is probably too big to be used in the Google search listing.
Answer: A

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NO.7 If you open your Google AdWords account and want to see instant insights into your account's
performance, where would you look?
A. Account Statistics
B. Reports
C. CTR
D. Google Analytics
Answer: A

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NO.8 Nancy has created a campaign for her boutique. She has customized the ad and targeted her city and
specific content. Nancy has noticed that her ad performs best on Tuesdays and Wednesdays, as people
prepare for their weekend plans. Nancy would like to automatically adjust her bids for keywords on
Tuesdays and Wednesdays. Is this possible?
A. No, Google AdWords can automatically change the bids, but only for seven-day increments.
B. Yes, Nancy can do this through Google AdWords' Demographic bidding.
C. No, Nancy will need to login into Google AdWords, and manually change her bids for these two days.
D. Yes, Nancy can do this through Google AdWords' Ad scheduling.
Answer: D

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NO.9 John has started a new business that sells bumper stickers online. His primary advertising focus is
branding his business name, and getting as much exposure as possible on the Internet. John has hired
you to help him manage his Google advertising. Based on what you know so far, what approach would
you recommend to John?
A. SEM based on web content
B. SEO for good web content
C. CPM models
D. PPC models
Answer: C

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NO.10 You have created a report for you and your client, regarding several performance factors. You receive
an email asking you to download your report from the Report Center. Your report, as it turns out, is too big
for Google to email. What is the maximum size of reports in an email sent through Google?
A. 25MB
B. 2MB
C. 50MB
D. 66MB]
Answer: B

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NO.11 Henry has been running Google AdWords for the past six months. He has a good clickthrough rate, but
he feels that his sales aren't in proportion to the clickthrough rate he's receiving. Henry wants to optimize
his site, but he wants to identify where he's losing visitors on the way to conversion. Which Google
Analytics report could Henry run, to help identify this trend and show optimization opportunities?
A. Top exit pages report
B. Site overlay report
C. Top landing pages report
D. Funnel visualization report
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are managing an AdWords campaign for your organization. You have two assistants who work
with you to manage several ads through the Google AdWords Editor. You'd like to leave comments to
items in the AdWords Editor to help communicate changes, inform your assistants, and allow them to
respond to your queries. What's the correct path to leave a comment on an item in Google AdWords
Editor?
A. You can't leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can attach items, such
as .txt or .doc items to leave notes.
B. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords Editor
and click Add Comment at the bottom of the tab.
C. You can't leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can use a Notepad
document (or any document in .txt format) and attach it to items.
D. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords Editor
and click Insert Comment from the Extras column.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Google recommends that ad creators include a strong call to action phrase in their
advertisements. Which of the following is the weakest call to action phrase?
A. Call today
B. Click here
C. Buy
D. Purchase
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are working with your client to optimize their Google AdWords ad. Which targeting tool can you
use, to predict the average cost-per-click for your keywords?
A. Traffic Estimator
B. Keyword tool
C. Placement tool
D. Search Terms Report
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are investigating Google AdWords double-serving policy for a client. You learn that Google
AdWords doesn't allow multiple ads from the same client, based on duplicate keywords. You also learn
that individuals advertising for themselves, or for their ownbusinesses, may only have a single AdWords
account. Does Google have any exceptions for the number of AdWords account a person can manage?
A. Yes, if you have two or more products to sell from the same domain, you can manage one Google
AdWords account for each product.
B. Yes, if you use a My Client Center account, you may have multiple accounts.
C. No. All Google AdWords participants can have just one Google AdWords account.
D. Yes, if you have two or more landing sites on different domains, you can manage one Google AdWords
account for each domain.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
advertise is related to Iron Man. Charlie would like to create an embedded match keyword targeting ad for
his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie Iron Man. Which one of
the following would allow Charlie's ads to appear for Iron Man Cards and Iron Man Collectibles, but not for
the exact match of Iron Man?
A. ("Iron Man")
B. {Iron Man}
C. +["Iron Man"]
D. -[Iron Man]
Answer: D

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NO.17 Paula has created a Google AdWords campaign for her company. She has created a good group of
keywords for her ads, and she's eager to get visitors to her site as soon as possible. Paula would like
Google to display her ads as often as possible, until her budget is reached. What type of delivery option
should Paula choose for her ads?
A. Instant delivery
B. Accelerated delivery
C. Click-cost delivery
D. Standard delivery
Answer: B

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NO.18 Gary is explaining the process of the Google Search Query to his manager. Gary states that the pages
that Google believes is important will show up higher in the organic search results. What term should
Gary actually use to describe the order of search results by Google?
A. Indexing Technology
B. Hypertext-Matching Analysis
C. PageRank Technology
D. Organic search listings
Answer: C

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NO.19 You are creating a new Google AdWords campaign for your company. What is the default setting for
new Google AdWords campaigns in regard to search sites and content network sites?
A. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google search results home page; you must opt into other
components of the Google Network.
B. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google Content Network.
C. Your new campaign is opted in to the entire Google Network: Google search, search partners, and the
Content Network with 'Relevant pages across the entire network' in the default.
D. Your new campaign will only appear in Google search results and search partners.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Beth runs a photography business and she wants to make certain, her advertisements only run in the
evening. How is this possible with Google AdWords?
A. Beth can pause and restart her ads whenever she likes.
B. Beth can use the ad scheduling tool to choose when her ads should appear.
C. Beth can use the conversion optimizer to indicate the hours she'd like to optimize her ad for
conversion.
D. Google won't automatically adjust when the ads are displayed.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
advertise is related to Iron Man. Charlie would like to create an embedded match keyword targeting ad for
his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie Iron Man. Which one of
the following would allow Charlie's ads to appear for Iron Man Cards and Iron Man Collectibles, but not for
the exact match of Iron Man?
A. +["Iron Man"]
B. -[Iron Man]
C. ("Iron Man")
D. {Iron Man}
Answer: B

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NO.22 Terri has created a website for her web design business. Through her SEO efforts and good web
content, her site has reached the top position in Google's organic search results for certain keywords. On
her site, she has added the phrase 'Recommended by Google' in the header. She does not, however, use
this phrase in her Google AdWords ads. Is this a problem according to Google AdWords policies?
A. Yes, Terri must add this phrase to her Google AdWords advertisements too.
B. No, Terri can add this info to her site as long as she doesn't put this phrase in her Google AdWords
advertisements.
C. No, Terri's site is recommended by Google as she's on the top, in search results on certain keywords.
D. Yes, Google doesn't allow ads or sites to add such language that may mislead readers to believe her
site is directly affiliated with Google.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Nancy is reviewed her billing summary for her Google AdWords account. There is a line item in the
billing summary titled 'Adjustment - Click Quality'. What does this line item mean?
A. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that took longer than five seconds to resolve.
B. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her, for Google incurred cost overruns for displaying her ad
beyond her given budget.
C. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that didn't take visitors to her domain.
D. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that were deemed invalid clicks.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Jerry has downloaded and installed the Google AdWords editor. He manages many ads for his
company, but the web address for his company is changing. He needs a way to quickly and accurately
edit the destination URL for his company's Google AdWords ads, without having to edit them each,
individually. What's the best way for Jerry to edit the entire destination domain for his company?
A. Because Google needs to approve destination URL changes, Jerry will have to use the online Google
AdWords editor, and wait for Google's approval.
B. Jerry can do this through Google AdWords editor and the Campaign Manager.
C. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor through Campaign Manager;by choosing all
campaigns and then editing the domain URL for all campaigns.
D. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor, with the Advanced Editing Tools and the
Advanced URL Changes option
Answer: D

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NO.25 You have created a Google AdWords ad using the keyword [oil painting] for your advertisement.
Which of the following searches would most likely cause your ad to be displayed on Google?
A. Paintings in Oil
B. Oil Painting
C. Any phrase with the keyword oil painting, such as old oil paintings
D. Watercolor painting
Answer: B

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NO.26 You have created several campaigns with Google AdWords for your clients. You are using the Manager
Defined Spend for your budgets in Google AdWords. When you create a new start date for a budget, what
requirement does Google have in regard to the new budget and existing budgets that you manage?
A. Managed account budgets must be approved by two parties before the ad will begin display.
B. Start dates for new budgets can't overlap with other budgets that may already be set up for the
managed account.
C. Managed account budgets cannot exceed $100 per day.
D. Managed account budgets can't start and end on the same day for more than three managed
accounts.
Answer: B

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NO.27 You're reviewing a campaign you've created for your company with your manager. The manager is
curious about the budget setting on the campaign's tab. What does the budget value mean?
A. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each week.
B. It's the maximum amount you'll spend for one click on your ad.
C. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each month.
D. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each day.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Ivan has created advertisements for his online printing business. His ads have been running for two
months, and he'd like to get a sense of where his ads are geographically being shown. How can Ivan see
the geographical information where his Google AdWords are being shown?
A. Ivan must create a Geographic Performance Report in his account.
B. Unless Ivan creates a location targeting ad, he won't see this information.
C. Ivan must create an IP Address Report; Google will resolve the IP Address to locations.
D. Ivan must create an IP Address report, and then resolve the IP addresses to locations.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Mary has a Google AdWords account, and she feels that her Google AdWords aren't performing well.
Mary wants to make adjustments to her ad, to get more clickthroughs to her website. Which of the
following optimizations is likely to help Mary increase her clickthrough rate?
A. Mary should stop using an image ad and use a text ad only, in Google search.
B. Mary should focus on her website by adding content.
C. Mary should focus on ad quality and use negative keywords, to eliminate extra impressions.
D. Mary should create multiple campaigns, and track the performance of each campaign.
Answer: C

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NO.30 You manage multiple accounts for Google AdWords as part of your SEO business. You have two
assistants who help you manage the accounts through sub-My Client Centers. Because this part of your
business has been growing, you have hired a third assistant and created a third My Client Center. What is
the process of moving an account from one sub-MCC to the new sub-MCC?
A. From the top-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move and
then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the account should be moved to,
and then Save Changes.
B. From the sub-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move to
the new sub-level MCC and then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the
account should be moved to, and then Save Changes.
C. Accounts cannot be moved between sub-MCCs.
D. From the new sub-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move
to the new sub-level MCC and then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the
account should be moved from, and then Save Changes.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-144

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Illustrator CS5 ACE Exam)

Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to print a document with trim marks and a bleed value of 0.1875 inches. You choose File >
Print. What should you do to prevent printer marks from being visible in the bleed area?
A. Set the value for all bleeds to a value above 0.1875 inch.
B. Deselect Auto-Rotate and choose Tile in the Options area.
C. Enter a value of 0.1875 inch for all bleed settings and the Offset setting.
D. Select the Use Document Bleed Settings option, and deselect Color Bars and Page Information.
Answer: C

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NO.2 How can you view three separate document windows side by side?
A. Choose Tile All Vertically from the Arrange Document menu in the Application bar.
B. Choose Window > Arrange > Cascade.
C. Choose > Tile All In Grid from the Arrange Document menu in the Application bar.
D. Choose Window > Arrange > Float All in Windows.
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are working a large poster. The poster will be printed on six tiled pages, each defined by an
artboard. The artboards have been arranged with no space between them. You want to position objects
based on the upper-left corner of the upper-left artboard. Which rulers should you use?
A. Artboard
B. Global
C. Video
D. Perspective Grid
Answer: B

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NO.4 To see more of your document when working, you want to hide all panels except the Tools panel. What
should you do?
A. Choose Window > Arrange > Float in Window.
B. Click the Change Screen Mode button at the bottom of the Tools panel to toggle to Full Screen Mode
C. Press the Tab key.
D. Press Shift+Tab.
Answer: D

Adobe   9A0-144   9A0-144   9A0-144

NO.5 Which profile in the New Document dialog box has the following default settings?
RGB, 72 PPI document with Align to Pixel Grid disabled
Measurement units set to Pixels
Page orientation set to Portrait
A. Mobile and Devices
B. Web
C. Basic RGB
D. Flash Catalyst
Answer: A

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NO.6 You have saved a custom Keyboard Shortcut set. How can you see a list of all the keyboard shortcuts,
including your modified ones?
A. Open the Illustrator Defaults.kys file inside the Illustrator application folder in a text editor.
B. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts, and then click the Export Text button.
C. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts, and then click the Save button.
D. Type Keyboard Shortcuts in the Search field on the Help menu.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which settings or command allows you to view a pixel grid when you are creating web graphics?
A. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 600%
B. Pixel Preview on, Zoom set above 100%
C. Pixel Preview on, Full Screen Mode
D. Choose View > Show Grid
Answer: A

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NO.8 You want to use the Shift key plus any arrow keys to nudge objects 1 pica. There are 12 points in a pica.
Which value should you enter in the Keyboard Increment field in the general preference?
A. 12 pt
B. 1.2 pt
C. 120 pt
D. 0.12 pt
Answer: B

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NO.9 You draw a path that contains a nonsymmetrical curved anchor point. You now want to alter the Bezier
handles of the anchor point so both sides of the curve are identical in length and angle. You are using the
Pen tool on the selected path. What should you do?
A. Press Option (Mac OS) / Alt (Windows) and drag the anchor point.
B. Shift-click the anchor point.
C. Double-click the anchor point.
D. Click on the anchor point while pressing the Option (Mac OS) / Alt (Windows) key.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Using the Layers panel, you want to move objects that are selected from one layer to a locked layer by
dragging the Selected Art icon to the target layer. Which key combination should you use?
A. Command+Option-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl+Alt-drag (Windows)
B. Shift-drag
C. Command-drag (Mac OS) or Ctrl-drag (Windows)
D. Option-drag (Mac OS) or Alt-drag (Windows)
Answer: C

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NO.11 You have created several additional artboards while working on a document. You want to position all of
the artboards in a more logical manner within your document. What should you do?
A. Click and drag the artboards in the Artboard panel so they appear in the order you want.
B. Double-click the Artboard tool, and adjust the 9-point registration box under the Position field in the
Artboard Options dialog box.
C. Choose Object > Artboards > Rearrange.
D. Choose Artboard Options from the Artboard panel menu.
Answer: C

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NO.12 You want to add metadata information to the file you are working on. Which command should you
choose?
A. Window > Document Info
B. Window > Info
C. File > File Info
D. File > Document Setup
Answer: C

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NO.13 Where does the new artboard appear when you create it using the New Artboard button in the Artboard
panel.?
A. To the left of all current artboards
B. To the right of all current artboards
C. Below all curent artboards
D. Above all curent artboards
Answer: B

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NO.14 You want to add some guides that will be visible only inside a particular artboard. What should you do?
A. Select the Artboard tool from the Tools panel, click on the artboard, and then drag guides out from the
horizontal or vertical document ruler.
B. Select the artboard name in the Artboard panel, and then drag a guide out from the horizontal or
vertical document ruler.
C. Click on the artboard with the Selection tool, and then Option+double-click (Mac OS) or
Alt+double-click (Windows) on the horizontal or vertical ruler.
D. Drag a guide from the horizontal or vertical document ruler, and hold down the Option (Mac OS) or Alt
(Windows) key before letting go of the mouse button.
Answer: A

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NO.15 You have created a nested artboard in a multiple artboard document. Which two file formats will enable
you to save or export each artboard into an individual file? (Choose two.)
A. Adobe Illustrator (ai)
B. SVG (svg)
C. BMP (bmp)
D. Adobe FXG (fxg)
E. Photoshop (psd)
F. Windows Metafile (wmf)
Answer: A,E

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-058

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Flash CS3 ACE Exam)

Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 Which is NOT a benefit when adding a title in the Document Properties?
A. The title will be used for your HTML document
B. Metadata will be added for any version of Flash
C. Metadata will be added to the head of the SWF file
D. Metadata can be seen by choosing Publish Settings >Generate Size Report
Answer:A

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NO.2 User accessibility on your video project is a key factor. Which two features should you choose?
(Choose two.)
A. Set showCaptions = true.
B. Use methods of the AccessibleVideo class.
C. Use methods of the UserAccessiblility class.
D. Use Flash 8 Player and the useCaptions method.
E. Use Flash Player 9 with FLVPlayBackCaptioning component.
Answer:AE

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NO.3 You are creating a form that will fade out when the user submits it. What must you do to with the text
fields to ensure that text entered by the user will fade out?
A. Embed the font in the text field.
B. Use device fonts in your text field.
C. Set the text field type to dynamic.
D. Choose the Anti-alias for Animation option from the Font Rendering Method pop-up menu in the
Properties panel.
Answer:A

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NO.4 You have a dynamically loaded image that is larger than your stage. Which component would work
best to accommodate this image?
A. Window
B. TextArea
C. DataGrid
D. ScrollPane
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which text anti-aliasing property setting will result in the smallest SWF file size?
A. Use Device Fonts
B. Anti-Alias for Animation
C. Anti-Alias for Readability
D. Bitmap Text (No Anti-Alias)
Answer:A

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NO.6 You want to create a Rectangle shape with a defined corner radius. Which tool should you use?
A. Square
B. Rectangle
C. Rectangle Primitive
D. Rectangle Shape Properties
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are creating a project for the FlashLite player. You are concerned with the processor capabilities
of the device.
Which graphic asset would require the most processing power on the player?
A. GIF
B. JPG
C. PNG
D. Vector
Answer: D

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NO.8 You want to skin Flash CS3 components. What should you do?
A. Edit the HaloTheme
B. Edit the SampleTheme
C. Apply one of the available themes
D. Double-Click a component on the stage and edit the internal graphic
Answer: D

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button.
You have selected Object 1 with the Selection tool. You switch to the Eyedropper tool and click on the fill
of Object 2.
Which object does Object 1 transform into?
A. B
B. A
C. C
D. D
Answer:A

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NO.10 You have a TextField selected on stage and would like to separate each letter into its own TextField.
Which option under the Modify menu allows you to do this?
A. Divide
B. Separate
C. Break Apart
D. Individualize
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two file formats can be imported into a SWF file at runtime? (Choose two.)
A. AI
B. JPG
C. EPS
D. PNG
E. PSD
Answer: BD

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NO.12 Which two are symbol options when converting an object into a symbol? (Choose two.)
A. Video
B. Image
C. Graphic
D. MovieClip
E. Component
Answer: CD

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NO.13 What happens when you drag an object created with the Oval tool to the Library panel?
A. The oval object is added to the Library as a symbol.
B. The oval object is added to the Library as an object.
C. The oval object is added to the Library as a primitive.
D. The oval object is added to the Library as an imported item.
Answer:A

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button.
Which tool was used to create the graphic shown in the exhibit?
A. The Pen tool
B. The Rectangle tool
C. It CANNOT be determined.
D. The Rectangle Primitive tool
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which is the quickest way to make the stroke around an oval shape into a dotted line?
A. Apply the Dotted filter to the stroke of the shape.
B. In the Ink Bottle tool options, set the stroke join type to dotted.
C. Set the stroke type of the shape to dotted in the Properties panel.
D. Choose the Modify > Shape > Convert Lines to Fills option and erase parts of the stroke to make it
appear dotted.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You have a rectangle shape with rounded corners. You want to ensure that the corners do NOT distort
when the rectangle is scaled. What should you do?
A. Adjust xscale and yscale properties
B. Convert the shape to a Graphic symbol
C. It's not possible to prevent the corners from scaling
D. Convert the shape to a MovieClip and apply 9-slice scaling
Answer: D

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NO.17 Your company logo is available in the following formats: Illustrator, JPG, PNG, GIF and PSD. Which
format would give you the most options within your Flash project?
A. GIF
B. JPG
C. PNG
D. PSD
E. Illustrator
Answer: E

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NO.18 Which is an advantage of selecting a Flash Player version in Publish Settings before beginning a
project?
A. There is NO advantage. It is identical to choosing them at the conclusion.
B. Components not available in the targeted player will be removed from the Components Panel.
C. Classes, Properties, Methods and Events NOT available in the targeted player will be highlighted in the
Script Navigator.
D. Classes, Properties, Methods and Events NOT available in the targeted player will be removed from
the Script Navigator.
Answer: C

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NO.19 You have a video project that would best be served by using full screen mode. This needs to be done
from within the browser, since you are NOT able to use a projector. Which publish settings should you
use?
A. Use Flash Player 7 or higher.
B. Use Flash Player 8 or higher.
C. Use Flash Player 9 or higher.
D. None. FullScreen mode is only possible in a projector.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which two panels can be used to change the label text of a Button component? (Choose two.)
A. the Strings panel
B. the Properties panel
C. the Component panel
D. the Accessibility panel
E. the Component Inspector panel
Answer: BE

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-086

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe InDesign CS4 Exam)

Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 You want to place crop marks 4 mm from the trim edge when printing.
What should you do?
A. select the All Printer's Marks checkbox in the Marks and Bleed pane of the Print Dialog Box, and set
the Offset field to 4 mm
B. deselect the Use Document Bleed Settings checkbox in the Marks and Bleed tab of the Print Dialog
Box, and manually enter 4 mm for all four sides
C. choose File > Document Setup, click the More Options button, and enter 4 mm as the Slug value
D. choose File > Print Booklet and enter 4 mm in the Creep field
Answer: A

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NO.2 You want to create text along the edge of an oval frame that you've drawn with the Ellipse tool.
What should you do?
A. right+click (Ctrl+click with a one button mouse) the ellipse with the Type on a Path tool and choose
Content > Text from the contextual menu
B. click the edge of the ellipse with the Type on a Path tool
C. double-click the edge of the ellipse with the Direct Selection tool
D. Shift+click the edge of the ellipse with the Type tool
Answer: B

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NO.3 You frequently enter text directly into InDesign via the Story Editor, and you often type so quickly that
you type "Acme,Inc" instead of "Acme, Inc."
What should you do?
A. You choose Edit > Spelling > Dynamic Spelling, which will alert you to every instance of the typo by
placing a squiggly red underline beneath it.
B. You choose Edit > Spelling > Dictionary to open the Dictionary dialog, enter "Acme,Inc" in the Word
field, and click the Add button
C. You open the Autocorrect pane of the Preferences dialog box and select the EnableAutocorrect
checkbox. You then click the Add button, enter the incorrect and the correct spellings and click OK.
D. You apply to the comma in "Acme,Inc" a character style with a kerning value high enough to push the
"Inc" a full space to the right.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You want to apply an opaque gradient fill at an angle, from the lower-left corner to the upper-right
corner of a square frame.
Which feature do you use to accomplish this?
A. New Gradient Swatch dialog box
B. Gradient panel
C. Effects panel
D. Gradient Feather tool
Answer: B

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NO.5 You have created a table and want to set the space above the table.
What should you do?
A. select the first row of the table and then adjust the Space Above field in the Control panel
B. place your cursor in the table, choose Table > Table Options > Table Setup, and use the Table Options
dialog box to adjust table spacing
C. select the table, choose Window > Text Wrap, and use the Text Wrap panel to adjust space above
D. select the table and increase the Top Cell Inset field in the Table panel
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have an XML file, a DTD, and a completed InDesign file from a previous XML project. You want to
use the same XML tags and structure in a new InDesign document.
Which method should you use to reproduce the tag names in the new InDesign file?
A. select Load Tags from the Tags Panel menu; select the previous InDesign file and click Open to load
the XML tags
B. open the previous InDesign file; select all the tag names in the Tags panel; press Command-C (Mac
OS) or Ctrl-C (Windows) to copy them; open the new InDesign file; while the Tags panel is open, press
Command-V (Mac OS) or Ctrl-V (Windows)
C. select Load Tags from the Structure panel menu; select the DTD file; click Open
D. select Import XML from the File menu; select the DTD; click Open
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have created a new object style. In the Stroke pane of the New Object Style dialog box, you choose
a 2-point red stroke. In the Paragraph Styles pane, you choose a paragraph style called "Heading".
What happens when you select a graphic frame with a JPEG image in it and assign this object style?
A. The frame is converted to an empty text frame with a 2-point red stroke and the graphic is deleted.
B. The frame is converted to a text frame with a 2-point red stroke and the graphic is converted to an
inline object.
C. The frame is assigned a 2-point red stroke and the graphic remains.
D. The frame remains the same and this object style is not applied.
Answer: C

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NO.8 You import a QuickTime movie into your InDesign document.
Which two features in the Export Adobe PDF dialog box will enable the movie to play in Acrobat? (Choose
two.)
A. PDF/X3:2002 in the Standard pop-up menu
B. Interactive Elements checkbox
C. Acrobat 5 in the Compatibility pop-up menu
D. Optimize for Fast Web View checkbox
E. Create JDF File Using Acrobat
Answer: BC

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NO.9 You place a graphic on a master page and apply a text wrap to it. You want the text wrap to apply to
text on master pages only.
What should you do?
A. select the graphic on the master page and choose Apply to Master Page Only from the Text Wrap
panel menu
B. select the graphic on the master page, right-click (Ctrl+click with a one button mouse), and choose
Allow Master Item Overrides from the contextual menu
C. select Text Wrap Only Affects Text Beneath in the Composition pane of the Preferences dialog box
D. with the graphic selected, select the Invert checkbox in the Text Wrap panel
Answer: A

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NO.10 What should you do to prevent a master page item from being overridden on a document page?
A. right-click (Ctrl+click with a one-button mouse) the item on the master page and from the contextual
menu, select Lock Position
B. create a new layer, move the item to that layer and drag the layer to the bottom of the layer stack
C. right-click (Ctrl+click with a one-button mouse) the item on the master page and from the contextual
menu, deselect Allow Master Item Overrides
D. create a new master page for that one item only and base the other master pages on that
Answer: C

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NO.11 In which layered Photoshop file format does InDesign CS4 allow you to control layer visibility?
A. PDF
B. PSD
C. TIFF
D. PSB
E. EPS
Answer: B

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NO.12 You have selected a table and you want to use Quick Apply to choose a table style.
What should you do so that Quick Apply only displays table styles?
A. press Ctrl+Enter (Windows) or Command+Enter (Mac OS) and then type "t:"
B. press Ctrl+Enter (Windows) or Command+Enter (Mac OS) and then Alt-t (Windows) or Option-t (Mac
OS)
C. choose Window > Type & Tables > Table Styles, and then click on the Quick Apply button in the Table
Styles panel
D. open the Quick Apply window and Option-click (Mac OS) or Alt-click (Windows) on any table style in
the list
Answer: A

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NO.13 You have created a condition in the Conditional Text panel. You want to apply that condition to all text
that has the "Teacher's Edition" paragraph style applied to it.
What should you do?
A. choose Create New Set from the Set pop-up menu in the Conditional Text panel
B. create a character style with the condition applied and apply it to the paragraph style as a nested style
C. edit the paragraph style definition to include the condition
D. use Find/Change to find text in the "Teacher's Edition" paragraph style and apply the condition to it
Answer: D

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NO.14 You want to apply trapping to your file while creating a PostScript file.
What should you do?
A. in the Output pane of the Print dialog box, click the Ink Manager button, and select the Trapping
Sequence field
B. in the Output pane of the Print dialog box, select Separations from the Color pop-up menu and select
Application Built-In in the Trapping pop-up menu
C. in the Output pane of the Print dialog box, select Composite CMYK from the Color pop-up menu, and
select the Simulate Overprint checkbox
D. choose Window > Output > Trap Presets, and select Assign Trap Preset from the Trap Preset panel
menu
Answer: B

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NO.15 Options, and choose Custom in the Position pop-up menu. Finally, you select the frame with the
Selection tool and click the Wrap Around Object Shape button in the Text Wrap panel.
Which statement is true about the text wrap?
A. Text wrap is disabled for anchored objects when you choose Custom from the Position pop-up menu.
B. The text wrap affects all lines of text in all stories on this page.
C. The text wrap has no effect on its own line of text or text in the previous paragraph.
D. The text wrap affects all lines in this story, but has no effect on stories in other text frames.
Answer: C

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NO.16 You have created a table long enough to flow over two pages of your document. You want the data in
the first row to be duplicated on the second page.
What should you do?
A. insert your cursor in the first row of the table and choose Table > Convert Rows > To Header
B. select the first row of the table and from the Notes panel menu choose Convert to Note
C. create a header cell style in the Cell Styles panel and apply it to the first row of the table
D. select the first row and choose Table > Cell Options > Rows and Columns
Answer: A

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NO.17 You select a color in the Swatches panel and open the Swatches panel menu. New Mixed Ink Swatch is
disabled (grayed out).
Why do this happen?
A. You must first select the Gradient Swatch tool in the Tool panel.
B. You must select two swatches in the Swatches panel to create a mixed ink swatch.
C. You must have at least one spot color swatch to create a mixed ink swatch.
D. You need to first select an object on the page.
Answer: C

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NO.18 You have a long story threaded across multiple columns on multiple pages. You want to ensure that a
column of text does not begin with a single last line of a paragraph (widow), or end with a single first line of
a paragraph (orphan).
Which feature lets you control this?
A. Paragraph Rules from the Paragraph panel menu
B. Justification from the Paragraph panel menu
C. Advanced Type pane of the Preferences dialog box
D. Keep Options from the Control panel menu
Answer: D

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NO.19 You have a Photoshop image selected on your page.
Which panels allow you to access to the image's embedded XMP metadata?
A. Links panel and Attributes panel
B. Links panel and Info panel
C. Info panel and Attributes panel
D. Info panel and Tags panel
Answer: B

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NO.20 Using the Preflight panel, you want to locate any imported color bitmapped image with an effective
resolution under 250 ppi.
What should you do?
A. create a new Preflight profile with a Color Image Minimum Resolution setting of 250 ppi
B. create a new Preflight profile with a Color Image Maximum Resolution setting of 250 ppi
C. edit the Basic profile using a Color Image Minimum Resolution setting of 250 ppi
D. edit the Basic profile using a Color Image Maximum Resolution setting of 250 ppi
Answer: A

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