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Code d'Examen: HP0-500
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProLiant Server Maintenance)
Questions et réponses: 200 Q&As

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NO.1 .After a field engineer adds a second array controller to the server, the operating system does not boot .
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. incorrect jumper settings
B. incorrect slot order
C. array controller boot order D. interrupt conflicts
Answer: C

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NO.2 .How is a redundant Xeon server PPM identified?
A. one processor installed
B. two processors installed
C. fully populated PPM circuit board
D. half populated PPM circuit board
Answer: C

HP   HP0-500   certification HP0-500

NO.3 .Which utility is assists in planning and configuring Compaq racks?
A. RackManager
B. RackAssistant
C. RackIntegrator
D. RackBuilder Pro
Answer: D

HP examen   HP0-500   certification HP0-500   HP0-500

NO.4 .Which step must be performed when upgrading a customer's ProLiant server from a Pentium II Xeon
to Pentium III Xeon processor?
A. Flash ROM before replacing processors.
B. Ensure all processors have the same frequency and cache size.
C. Mix cache sizes in pairs for sockets 1 and 3.
D. Upgrade terminator boards for all four sockets.
Answer: A

HP   HP0-500 examen   HP0-500

NO.5 .Which diagnostic mode tests individual components of a server?
A. Intermediate
B. Automatic
C. QuickCheck
D. Prompted
Answer: D

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NO.6 .On a ProLiant 450 MHz processor server, Level 2 cache is logging errors. Which item should be
replaced?
A. Cache Memory Stick
B. System I/O Board
C. CPU/Processor Module
D. Riser Card
Answer: C

HP   certification HP0-500   certification HP0-500   HP0-500

NO.7 .Which network interface controller configuration can support redundant NICs?
A. one dual-port fast Ethernet network controller
B. one 16/4 token ring network controller connected to a managed hub
C. one fast Ethernet network controller connected to a second server
D. one fast Ethernet network controller connected to a router
Answer: A

HP   HP0-500   HP0-500 examen   HP0-500 examen

NO.8 .What can Compaq Diagnostics reliably test?
A. Compaq Insight Manager (CIM) agents
B. system ROM BIOS compatibility
C. DAT tape drive read/write function
D. non-Compaq SCSI controller
Answer: C

HP   HP0-500   HP0-500 examen

NO.9 .What is used to disable a Compaq server serial port?
A. Compaq Insight Manager
B. System Board Switch
C. System Configuration Utility
D. Nothing, as it is disabled by default
Answer: C

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NO.10 .A defective processor is replaced in a Compaq server. The 212 "System Processor Failed" POST
error will not go away. What action can be performed?
A. Erase NVRAM to clear the Health Log.
B. Run Diagnostics on memory.
C. Replace hot-pluggable power supply.
D. Replace Memory Expansion Board.
Answer: A

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NO.11 .What enables remote server management and control regardless of the operating system or condition
of the server?
A. CIM (Compaq Insight Manager)
B. SCU (System Configuration Utility)
C. Remote Utilities (from system Diagnostics menu)
D. RILOE (Remote Insight Light Out Edition option)
Answer: D

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NO.12 .What problem is indicated if the server powers up with no video and an audible POST error?
A. memory module not seated
B. monitor signal cable not connected
C. intermittent memory parity errors
D. monitor in power saver mode
Answer: A

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NO.13 .What are the best sources for the latest versions of Rompaqs and Softpaqs? Select two.
A. Compaq ResourcePaq
B. SmartStart
C. HP/Compaq website
D. QuickFind2000
E. OS ServicePaq
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 .What is the advantage of having an online spare as part of a SMART array configuration?
A. The drive can be used for temporary data storage until another drive fails.
B. The array will not lose its fault tolerance in case of a single drive failure.
C. You always have a spare drive available to physically put in place of a failed drive without having to
order a spare drive.
D. You can load balance across the array.
Answer: B

HP   HP0-500   HP0-500   HP0-500

NO.15 .Where should the server Feature Board be installed in Compaq servers?
A. A designated slot
B. Any PCI 64-bit slot
C. Any extended slot
D. An EISA slot
Answer: A

HP   certification HP0-500   certification HP0-500   HP0-500

NO.16 .What do Compaq hot-pluggable power supplies have that traditional power supplies do not?
A. higher current
B. higher voltage
C. microcontroller Self-Test
D. power Monitor Port
Answer: C

HP   certification HP0-500   HP0-500   HP0-500   HP0-500 examen

NO.17 .Which Compaq server component is covered under prefailure warranty?
A. DIMM memory
A. hard disk controller
B. recovery server option
C. network interface controller
Answer: A

HP examen   HP0-500   HP0-500 examen

NO.18 .Which Compaq utility is used to configure Online Spare memory?
A. Rapid Raid Utility
B. Raid Builder for AMP
C. ROM-based Setup Utility
D. SmartStart
Answer: C

HP   HP0-500   certification HP0-500   certification HP0-500

NO.19 .When servicing a customer's system, what is the proper sequence to remove power to the server and
any external storage subsystems?
A. external storage systems first, then server
B. server first, then the external storage systems
C. UPS, then the server
D. external storage first, then the UPS
Answer: B

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NO.20 .Which product reports prefailure on all Compaq SMART hard drives?
A. CIM
B. RBSU C. ACU D. SCU
Answer: A

HP   HP0-500   HP0-500   HP0-500   certification HP0-500

NO.21 .While running Diagnostics on your ProLiant server, you receive an error code: 6092. What should you
do?
A. Replace network card.
B. Replace disk controller.
C. Connect external loopback cable.
D. Place network card in a different slot.
Answer: C

HP   HP0-500   HP0-500   HP0-500

NO.22 .Which action is required to safely replace non hot-pluggable components in servers with redundant
hot-pluggable power supplies?
A. Depress server On/Off switch from front panel.
B. Ensure DC LED indicator on the hot-pluggable power supply is inactive.
C. Remove AC power cord from the primary hot-pluggable power supply.
D. Remove AC power cords from all hot-pluggable power supplies.
Answer: D

HP   HP0-500   certification HP0-500   certification HP0-500

NO.23 Which component failure will cause a Compaq server to reset but not power up?
A. IMD
B. PPM
C. DIMM
D. CPU
Answer: B

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NO.24 .Which resources could be used to help isolate correctable memory errors?
A. SSD and DAAD
B. ACU and SmartStart
C. Server Health Logs and Integrated Management Log
D. QRG (Quick Reference Guide) and Inspect
Answer: C

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NO.25 .What action is recommended if the Server Health Driver consistently reports a correctable memory
error in the same location?
A. Run ERASE utility to clear the location.
B. Schedule downtime and replace memory.
C. This is normal and can be ignored.
D. Mark "repaired" in Insight Manager.
Answer: B

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NO.26 .What is the first required action to safely remove an adapter from a Compaq PCI hot-pluggable slot?
A. Just remove the card.
B. Power down the slot to remove the card.
C. Power down the server to remove the card.
D. Install the new card in another slot.
Answer: B

HP examen   HP0-500   HP0-500   HP0-500 examen

NO.27 .What is the likely cause of rack instability?
A. more than one component simultaneously extended
B. UPS installed at the bottom of the rack
C. side panels not installed
D. missing blanking panels
Answer: A

HP   HP0-500   HP0-500 examen   HP0-500   HP0-500 examen

NO.28 .What is the available array space after grouping six 4GB hard drives using Advanced Data Guarding?
A. 12GB
B. 16GB
C. 20GB
D. 24GB
Answer: B

HP   HP0-500 examen   HP0-500 examen   HP0-500

NO.29 .A hard drive fails on a system with an on-line spare. When is it recommended that the failed drive be
replaced?
A. upon discovery of the failure
B. upon completion of rebuild of on-line spare
C. not needed, failed drive will perform self-repair
D. any time before rebuild of online spare is complete
Answer: B

certification HP   HP0-500   HP0-500 examen

NO.30 .What capability do fans have in some hot-pluggable power supplies?
A. variable RPM, depending on thermal sensor readings
B. hot plug fan replacement
C. dual-power inputs for redundancy
D. redundant power supply fans
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S18
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP ProLiant ML/DL Servers)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 What features are included in both HP Support Plus and HP Support Plus 24?
(Select two.)
A. extended business hours coverage
B. annual OS patch analysis
C. escalation management
D. Fix Time/Call-to-Repair
E. remote monitoring, analysis, and management
Answer: A, C

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NO.2 What is the advantage of the iSCSI technology?
A. has no distance limitation
B. uses same data transmission protocol as Fibre Channel
C. provides support for ESCON protocol
D. is better than Fibre Channel technology for large database transfers and very large input/output
operations
Answer: A

HP   certification HP0-S18   HP0-S18 examen

NO.3 What is the benefit of SAS connectors?
A. SAS drives can be daisy-chained during configuration.
B. SAS connectors enable additional diagnostic features.
C. SAS uses the same electrical and physical interfaces as SATA.
D. SAS host controllers recognize SCSI protocols.
Answer: C

HP   HP0-S18   HP0-S18

NO.4 Which memory protection technology can detect 2-bit errors in a single byte
and correct single-bit errors?
A. Automatic Parity Checking
B. Battery Backed Write Cache
C. Error Checking and Correcting
D. Error Detecting and Correction
Answer: C

HP examen   HP0-S18 examen   HP0-S18

NO.5 Which technology enables Fibre Channel to communicate between SAN
facilities over IP networks?
A. point-to-point Fibre Channel
B. extended Fibre Channel
C. storage tunneling
D. long distance macro bending
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S16
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP BladeSystem)
Questions et réponses: 63 Q&As

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NO.1 Which options exist when you enable HP NIC teaming? (Select two.)
A. fault tolerance
B. CISCO Layer 4 teaming
C. socket layered balancing
D. NIC assisted load balancing
E. switch assisted load balancing
Answer: AE

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NO.2 Which storage technology is used with Serial Attached SCSI?
A. NUMA
B. shared bus
C. one-to-many
D. point-to-point
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which HP server blade uses the Itanium processor?
A. SB40c
B. BL485c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
E. BL2x220c
Answer: D

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NO.4 How is BladeSystem Integrated Manager installed by default?
A. as part of a SmartStart installation
B. with the initial installation of HP SIM
C. as an add-on after HP SIM is installed
D. with a separate license key in HP SIM
Answer: B

HP   HP0-S16 examen   HP0-S16   HP0-S16

NO.5 Which Onboard Administrator is the primary by default?
A. the left one
B. the right one
C. the active one
D. the first one installed
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the standard HP warranty on optional components such as mezzanines, fans, and power
supplies?
A. 1-1-1 (1 year parts; 1 year labor; 1 year onsite limited global warranty)
B. 3-3-3 (3 year parts; 3 year labor; 3 year onsite limited global warranty)
C. 1-0-0 (1 year parts limited global warranty or the system warranty, whichever is longer)
D. 1-1-0 (1 year parts limited global warranty or the system warranty, whichever is longer; 1 year labor)
Answer: C

HP   certification HP0-S16   HP0-S16 examen   HP0-S16 examen

NO.7 Which HP BladeSystem c-Class server blades support HP-UX? (Select two.)
A. BL465c
B. BL680c
C. BL685c
D. BL860c
E. BL870c
F. BL2x220c
Answer: DE

certification HP   HP0-S16   HP0-S16   HP0-S16

NO.8 What is the minimum number of power supplies required in a BladeSystem c-Class when using
threephase
power?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which processors use a 64-bit x86-based architecture? (Select two.)
A. Intel Itanium
B. AMD Opteron
C. Intel Pentium IV
D. Intel Pentium M
E. Intel Xeon Quad Core
Answer: BE

HP examen   certification HP0-S16   HP0-S16   HP0-S16 examen   HP0-S16

NO.10 What is the function of ECC memory?
A. It only detects single-bit errors.
B. It detects and corrects single-bit errors.
C. It detects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
D. It detects and corrects multi-bit errors within a single DRAM chip.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P19
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX High Availability Using Serviceguard v18)
Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 What does OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion) provide?
A. online replacement, addtion, and deletion of vPARs
B. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards
C. online replacement, addition, and deletion of cell boards in cell based systems
D. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards and core I/O cards
Answer: B

HP   certification HP0-P19   HP0-P19   HP0-P19

NO.2 Which components are considered potential single points of failure within a single HP-UX server?
(Select four.)
A. SAN
B. memory
C. backplane
D. DVD drive
E. LAN interfaces
F. mirrored root disks
G. system adminstrator
H. redundant power supply
I. Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter
Answer: BCEI

HP examen   certification HP0-P19   HP0-P19

NO.3 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)?
A. mean time to restart a failed service
B. mean time to repair a server after a failure
C. mean time to restart a server after a failure
D. mean time a system provides service without failure
Answer: D

HP   certification HP0-P19   HP0-P19   HP0-P19 examen

NO.4 When a Serviceguard package fails over in a highly available vPar environment, Workload Manager
(WLM) integrates with Serviceguard and disaster tolerant solutions by doing which process?
A. WLM creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
B. cmcld creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
C. WLM moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
D. cmcld moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
E. WLM can move a Serviceguard package from one virtual partition to another.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statements are true regarding High Availability (HA)? (Select three.)
A. Downtime is any amount of time when the application is unavailable (planned or unplanned).
B. HA systems provide a disaster tolerant solution that allows recovery from the loss of an entire data
center.
C. Unplanned downtime is be caused by a failure of a non-redundant hardware component on a cluster
node.
D. Metrocluster and Extended Campus Cluster solutions provide the same level of protection as a local
HA solution in case of environmental disasters.
E. HA is a combination of environmental, process, software, and computing hardware enhancements that
maximize the time that the application and system are available.
F. Highly available systems typically contain data redundancy through mirroring or RAID, some kind of
backup system hardware, power outage protection, and multiple LANs.
Answer: AEF

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NO.6 Which configurations are valid for a Serviceguard environment in combination with Integrity Virtual
machines? (Select two.)
A. Configuration 1
B. Configuration 2
C. Configuration 3
D. Configuration 4
Answer: AB

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NO.7 A customer has a 2-node HP Serviceguard cluster running a mission critical Oracle database and a
financial application. At the end of each month the server utilization spikes with no idle CPU resources
and there is a need for additional capacity.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment offering provides additional capacity and is best in this situation?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Global Workload Manager (gWLM)
E. Temporary Instant Capacity (TiCAP)
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which products offer a solution to protect from failure of a complete data center? (Select three.)
A. Metrocluster
B. Serviceguard
C. Continentalclusters
D. Extended Campus Cluster
E. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
Answer: ACD

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NO.9 What are advantages of RAC cluster? (Select three.)
A. increases user scalability
B. increases database security
C. supports larger database size
D. increases hardware scalability
E. increases database availability
F. increases application scalability
G. decreases package failover time
Answer: DEF

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NO.10 You are asked by your management team to do a presentation and explain why your IT department
should go with the SGeRAC solution instead of the standard single-instance Oracle implementation with
Serviceguard.
Which benefits should you present? (Select two.)
A. reduces the overall cost
B. increases the security level
C. provides easier cluster management
D. reduces recovery time of a large database
E. provides the ability to add more nodes to the cluster on the fly
F. increases processing power without the need to administer separate databases
Answer: DF

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NO.11 Consider the following entry in the /etc/rc.config.d/cmcluster file.
AUTOSTART_CMCLD=1
Which parameter in the cluster ascii file is affected by this entry?
A. CMCLD_TIMEOUT
B. CMCLD_RUN_START
C. AUTOSTART_CMCLD
D. AUTOSTART_TIMEOUT
E. HEARTBEAT_INTERVAL
Answer: D

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NO.12 In which situations can a local high availability solution prevent unplanned downtime? (Select two.)
A. An operator accidentially reboots a cluster node.
B. The shared storage component looses A/C power and goes down.
C. A complete data center goes down because of an environmental disaster.
D. The network communication between the cluster nodes is permanently interrupted.
E. The clustered application database becomes corrupted by installation of an application patch.
Answer: AD

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NO.13 When implementing a legacy package utilizing application monitoring, which variable in the package
control script will point to the monitor script?
A. service_cmd
B. SERVICE_CMD
C. MONITOR_CMD
D. MONITOR_NAME
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the function of the lock disk or Quorum server in a Serviceguard cluster?
A. prevents split brain syndrome
B. determines which node becomes the cluster coordinator
C. ensures that quorum is present the entire time the cluster is up
D. keeps a record of volume groups that are locked in exclusive mode
Answer: A

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the cmviewcl output, which statement is correct?
A. A failure of ora_lsnr will cause alien_pkg to failover.
B. A single failure of oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
C. The subnet 192.168.1.0 going down will cause alien_pkg to failover.
D. A failure of either ora_lsnr or oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
Answer: C

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NO.16 What are the advantages with respect to application availability for a customer using Serviceguard in
an HA environment? (Select two.)
A. Application database corruptions will be minimized.
B. An upgrade of the operating system will only require a package switch.
C. A power outage in the customer's computer room will not affect the users.
D. Rolling upgrades of the application can be performed in a Serviceguard environment.
E. A failure in a redundant power supply will only cause a package switch to the adoptive node.
Answer: BD

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NO.17 Your customer wants you to design an HA solution with HP-UX and Serviceguard that runs the
customer's Business Critical SAP production system as Serviceguard package, pkgA, and the customer's
Development SAP system as Serviceguard package, pkgB.
You design two vPars (vpar1 and vpar2) on serverA and two vPars (vpar3 and vpar4) on serverB.
What is a good design for this cluster to provide the maximum high availability? (Select two.)
A. Cluster vpar1 and vpar2 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
B. Cluster vpar1 and vpar3 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
C. Cluster vpar2 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
D. Cluster vpar3 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
Answer: BC

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NO.18 What is the purpose of the cluster interconnect in a Serviceguard extension for Oracle RAC
implementation? (Select two.)
A. Nodes can use it for cluster heartbeat traffic.
B. Nodes coordinate the shared storage status.
C. Oracle single instances coordinate their online/offline status.
D. Oracle RAC instances coordinate the consistency between their Oracle buffer cache.
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Which situations does Serviceguard provide high availability solutions for? (Select two.)
A. LAN card failure
B. application failure
C. client subnet goes down
D. poor application performance
E. failure of one of the LUN paths to shared storage
Answer: AB

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NO.20 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX environment? (Select two.)
A. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard over two physical
nodes
B. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
C. cellboard on a partioned node with two nPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
D. cellboard on a single-nPar node with two vPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
Answer: BD

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NO.21 In a Serviceguard implementation for concurrent instances of an Oracle RAC Database, which type of
shared storage management can be used on all nodes in the cluster? (Select three.)
A. Cluster File System (CFS)
B. Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Shared Logical Volume Manager (SLVM)
E. Standard Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
F. Enterprise Logical Volume Manager (ELVM)
G. Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
Answer: ADG

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NO.22 What are the main features of OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion)? (Select two.)
A. ability to replace a cell board on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
B. ability to repair a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
C. ability to online replace a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
D. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
E. ability to online replace an HP-UX system that supports OL* while it is configured in a Serviceguard
cluster
F. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) LAN card and afterwards to online add a PCI(-X) FC HBA in the same
PCI(-X) slot on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
Answer: CD

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NO.23 Which statement is correct concerning the difference between a local Serviceguard cluster and an
extended distance cluster (also known as a campus cluster)?
A. An extended distance cluster provides disaster tolerance across two data centers located on different
continents.
B. An extended distance cluster solution typically requires a physical data replication mechanism between
high end storage arrays.
C. An extended distance cluster solution typically uses host based disk mirroring between two computer
rooms in an IT environment.
D. An extended distance cluster is a separate product installation to implement High Availability between
two computer rooms in a IT environment.
Answer: C

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NO.24 In the context of high availability, which statements are true regarding split-brain syndrome? (Select
two.)
A. It can occur on a 2-node cluster.
B. It can occur on a 3-node cluster.
C. It allows different applications to simulatneously access the same disk.
D. It allows different partitions to access the same disk without knowledge of each other.
E. It is caused when two clusters initiate an application that accesses the same disk simultaneously.
F. It is caused when two equal size sub-clusters form from a single cluster without knowledge of each
other.
Answer: AF

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NO.25 Which statements are true regarding Serviceguard Manager version 5.01? (Select three.)
A. Serviceguard Manager is a graphical user interface for the Serviceguard product.
B. With Serviceguard Manager you can monitor, administer, and configure clusters managed by
Serviceguard.
C. With Serviceguard Manager you can run a multinode cluster which consists of both HP-UX and Linux
nodes.
D. With Serviceguard Manager you can change package-switching and node-switching flags for failover
packages.
E. With Serviceguard Manager you can install Serviceguard software product on hosts managed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM).
Answer: ABD

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NO.26 An e-ticketing application based on Apache webserver for a busy tourist market experiences failures
during peak season, resulting in loss of revenues.
Which product combination implements a solution that improves availability of the e-ticketing application?
(Select two.)
A. HP Serviceguard
B. Continental Clusters
C. HP Serviceguard Extension for SAP
D. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
E. HP Serviceguard Extension for RAC
Answer: AD

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NO.27 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX system? (Select four.)
A. hard disk drive
B. operating system
C. system administrator
D. redundant power supply
E. CPU on a Uniprocessor system
F. multi-port network interface card
G. alternate link to a disk in a shared volume group
Answer: ABEF

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NO.28 Which application templates are included in the Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit (ECMT)? (Select
four.)
A. NFS
B. SAP
C. SAPDB
D. HP Tomcat
E. HP Apache
F. HP CIFS/9000
G. Oracle 9i and 10g
Answer: DEFG

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NO.29 Which failure scenarios are transparent to application users when the application is running as a
Serviceguard package? (Select two.)
A. A LAN interface fails on a node where no package is running.
B. A complete power outage in the computer room where the cluster is located.
C. A redundant power supply fails in the cluster node running the application package.
D. Manual application package switch because of planned downtime on the cluster node.
E. The cluster node running the application package crashes because of a memory multibit error.
Answer: AC

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NO.30 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)?
A. mean interval of time to resume a service after a failure
B. mean time a service engineer needs to repair a failed server
C. mean interval of time when the system provides service without fault
D. mean time a service engineer needs to replace a server after a failure
E. mean time a service engineer needs to arrive at the site of a failed server
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-D03
Nom d'Examen: HP (Implementing HP Insight Dynamics - VSE Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 46 Q&As

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NO.1 You need to compare Scenario reports.Where do you accomplish this from the HP Systems Insight
Manager Menu bar?
A.Optimize --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
B.Reports --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
C.Options --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
D.Tasks & Logs --> Capacity Advisor --> Create Scenario Comparison Reports...
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement is true about paravirtualization?
A.The guest operating systems run at the standard Ring-0 architectural layer, removing the need for ring
compression.B.The hypervisor resides on the server hardware and the guest operating system is aware it
is running on a virtual machine.
C.The virtualization layer is hosted by the underlying operating system and the applications are controlled
by the hypervisor.
D.Portions of the system hardware are emulated, providing the guest operating system with virtual server
hardware and devices.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What application data can be imported into Capacity Advisor using the Optimize menu? (Select two.)
A.HP Storage Essentials host data
B.HP ProLiant Support Pack (PSP) data
C.HP ProLiant Management Pack (PMP) data
D.HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) data
E.HP OpenView Performance Agent (OVPA) data
Answer: CE

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NO.4 When creating system utilization reports, which static information does the report header contain?
(Select two.)
A.platform
B.idle power
C.workload description
D.contained in system
E.contained in complex
Answer: AB

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NO.5 An HP BladeSystem c7000 Enclosure is populated with full-height server blades with default DIP switch
settings on the Virtual Connect Fibre Channel module. Which Virtual Connect Fibre Channel uplinks are
used if the server blade has the Fibre Channel HBA mezzanine card in mezzanine connector 1 or 2?
A.1 and 2
B.1 and 3
C.1 and 4
D.2 and 4
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-755
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP OpenView Operations II (7.x) UNIX )
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 You have distributed a followthesun template to twenty managed nodes, and now
decide that two of these nodes need unique templates. What should you do?
A. Create node specific templates for those two nodes and distribute templates to the two
managed nodes.
B. Remove all templates from the respmgrs directory and distribute templates with the
Force option checked to the two managed nodes.
C. Log onto the two managed nodes and update the template from their distribution trees.
D. Perform a template distribution to the two managed nodes with the templates option
unchecked
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have a backup OpenView Operations management server and you wish to
replicate the OVO database configuration from your production system. The
commands you will execute are ____.
A. opccfgdwn, opcmgrdist, opccfgupld
B. opccfgdwn, opccfgupld
C. opctmplexport opctmplimport
D. export data from oracle database into a file and reload it
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which one of the following statements about individual messages is true?
A. When message forwarding is enabled, the managed node will send multiple copies of
configured messages to each responsible manager.
B. Managed nodes can send the same message with the same GUID to each responsible
manager listed in its' flexible management template.
C. A message sent from a managed node has a unique ID number (GUID), and only a
single instance of this message will be sent out from the agent.
D. When a message is escalated to another management server, a second message with a
new GUID is sent from the managed node to the escalation manager/
Answer: C

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NO.4 To determine a managed node's primary manager in a backup server flexible
management environment:
A. the management server is added to the snmp destination list on the managed node.
B. the IP address of the management server is held in the file
/var/opt/OV/share/conf/mgrconf.
C. the hostname of the management server is held in the file
/var/opt/OV/conf/OpC/primmgr.
D. the managed node responds to any OVO management server which establishes
heartbeat polling.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Assume that the manager-to-manager configuration has been completed. Choose
the three statements that are TRUE regarding Message Forwarding.
A. Message Forwarding is done automatically by the initiating management server.
B. The message can be forwarded to multiple managers.
C. The message status updates are propagated to the management servers which hold a
copy of the message.
D. Messages can be forwarded to managed nodes.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.6 The embedded performance component collects several metrics on the managed
node and stores the data on the managed node. After ________weeks the first week
of data is overwritten.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
Answer: C

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NO.7 In an MC/Service Guard installation, which directories are located on the share
drive?
A. /opt/OV/bin
B. /opt/Oracle
C. /var/opt/OV/share and /etc/opt/OV/share
D. /etc/opt/OV
Answer: C

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NO.8 A template is needed for the configuration of the service hours/scheduled outages.
This template is ____________.
A. an XML file on the agent describing which action must be taken at the current time
B. located in /etc/opt/OV/share/conf/OpC/mgmt_sv/respmgrs/outage on the management
server
C. an OVO template type, that will be distributed to the agents
D. a binary file on the management server located in /etc/opt/OV/share
Answer: B

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NO.9 The message manager must reread the configuration template for the outages if the
system administrator or an external application has changed that file.
A command line tool, _________, is available to start the (re-)configure request.
A. opccfgout -update
B. opccfgout - refresh
C. opcconfig -update
D. opcforwm -refresh
Answer: A

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NO.10 Escalation of messages:
A. occurs at management server level; the managed nodes continue to send messages to
their primary managers.
B. causes the original message to be acknowledged in the active browser of the operator
who escalated it, so that it is only displayed on the escalated station.
C. permits the operator to select an alternative management server to display the
escalated message.
D. allows messages from managed nodes to be sent by the managed node to a specified
secondary manager.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP2-F01
Nom d'Examen: HP (Technical Essentials of HP Enterprise Products)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer is currently running 28 Linux x86 NFS file servers with direct attached
storage. They are adding five servers every six months.
What solution will help resolve their potential problems?
A. EFS WAN Accelerator
B. Virtual Library System
C. MSA 1510i System
D. EFS Clustered Gateway
Answer: A

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NO.2 Your customer has a farm of 28 file servers using ProLiant ML350, all with exclusively
internal RAID storage. They are adding five more file servers with the same
configuration every six months.
Which statement best describes their current solution?
A. best utilized and easiest managed server-storage solution
B. best utilization of IT support resources that makes the administrators most productive
C. consolidated data center that is efficient in both floor space utilization and disk
utilization
D. unconsolidated serversthat are inefficient in both floor space utilization and disk
utilization
Answer: D

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NO.3 An enterprise customer needs the ability to manage their HP Integrity rx8620 using more
than one console. Which feature will meet this need?
A. Remote Insight LightsOut Edition II (RILOE II)
B. Transfer of Control (TOC)
C. Management Processor LAN (iLO MP)
D. Serial Port Redirection (SPR)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which feature of HP ProLiant 300 and 500 series servers can help your customer be
proactive in maintaining their HP ProLiant servers?
A. automatic server recovery
B. rapid deployment solution
C. pre-failure warranty
D. power management pack
Answer: B

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NO.5 The customer just purchased ten ProLiant DL380 G5 servers located at a remote location.
What can they use to gain graphical console access to the servers and power them on or
off from a central location?
A. ProLiant Multifunction Network Interface Card
B. integrated Lights-Out 2 Standard Blade Edition
C. ProLiant Lights-Out 100i
D. integrated Lights-Out 2 Advanced Pack
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer would like to have the functionality of "Rip and Replace" for all their x86
Microsoft Windows and Red Hat Linux server environments. Which solution fits their
need?
A. HPBladeSystem
B. HPProLiant DL500 series
C. HPProLiant DL100 series
D. HP Integrity Superdome
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which HP storage solution supports IBM mainframe ESCON connectivity?
A. XP
B. MSA
C. EVA
D. VLS
Answer: A

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NO.8 In an HP OpenView Data Protector solution, which component contains the database and
executes the core services?
A. cell manager
B. console server
C. media server
D. disk agent
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which virtualization technology maximizes client connectivity uptime and security in the
Proliant server platform?
A. HP Auto Port Aggregation using 1000SX network card
B. HP Clustered NIC in each server
C. Adapter teaming in the server with VLAN functionality
D. Virtual Cluster for NIC in the server
Answer: C

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NO.10 A critical database server stores data on a MSA 1500cs. Which RAID level on the disk
array is the most appropriate to achieve highest availability and performance?
A. RAID 4
B. RAID 1+0
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two components are used to manage the HP-UX 11i Virtual Machine (VM) host
system resources? (Select two.)
A. Virtual Machine Manager
B. Virtual Machine Management Pack
C. Performance Management Pack
D. System Management Homepage
Answer: A,D

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NO.12 What is the maximum unplanned downtime for an industry-standard server designed to
99.99% availability?
A. 15 minutes
B. 8 hours
C. 53 minutes
D. 87 hours
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which software tool can be used to help a customer virtualize a server environment?
A. HP VirtualComputer Center
B. HP Process Virtualization
C. HP Virtual Node Cluster
D. HP Integrity Virtual Machines
Answer: D

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NO.14 What option is needed in order to stack multiple MSL tape libraries together?
A. universal pass-through mechanism
B. second Fabric switch
C. cluster
D. SCSI splitter
Answer: A

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NO.15 Your customer wants to connect an MSA1500cs storage array to a ProLiant server
running SuSE Linux operating system. Which two references can be used to verify the
solution is supported? (Select two.)
A. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
B. HP Integrity Product Information Tool
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool
D. HP Product Bulletin
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 Which library system family introduces a fast, highly available disk-based backup
solution?
A. ESL
B. EML
C. MSL
D. VLS
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which management software is able to discover and monitor virtual machines on both
Proliant and Integrity server platforms?
A. HP Virtual Insight Manager
B. HP System Tools Manager
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. HP Systems Consolidated Manager
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two tape technologies provide read compatibility for two previous generations?
(Select two.)
A. AIT
B. SDLT
C. SLR
D. LTO
Answer: B,D

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NO.19 Which HP ProLiant server supports RAID Memory providing higher availability?
A. BL685c
B. DL380
C. ML370
D. DL580
Answer: D

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NO.20 A customer needs a high-bandwidth storage area network (SAN) solution providing
simultaneous communication between the servers and storage disk arrays.
Which type of Fibre Channel SAN topology will meet this requirement?
A. switched fabric
B. private fabric
C. public loop
D. arbitrated loop
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M25
Nom d'Examen: HP (Assessing Web Application Security )
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement best describes the Request Retry Count function?
A.The Request Retry Count indicates how long to wait for a response.
B.The Request Retry Count indicates how long to wait before re-requesting the same, non-responsive
page.
C.The Request Retry Count indicates how many times to attempt a request before marking it as a null
response.
D.The Request Retry Count indicates how much time WebInspect will spend on a request before marking
the requested page as a null response.
Answer:C

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NO.2 What are the Network Authentication techniques supported by WebInspect? (Select three.)
A.NTLM
B.Kerberos
C.htaccess
D.Cybersafe
E.HTTP Basic
F.Retinal Scan
Answer:A B E

HP   HP0-M25   HP0-M25   HP0-M25   HP0-M25 examen

NO.3 Which tool is used to create and edit the Web Form Values file?
A.HTML Editor
B.HTTP Editor
C.Web Form Editor
D.WebInspect Form Wizard
Answer:C

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NO.4 Which policy focuses on auditing the functionality of the Web Application only?
A.Standard policy
B.Application policy
C.Web Service policy
D.Web Application policy
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which statement best describes SmartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate is the process that delivers WebInspect Messages to the bottom of the Home tab.
B.SmartUpdate is the feature that sends False Positives (FP) to the HP Support team as quality feedback.
C.SmartUpdate is a process that retrieves updates to the local vulnerability database and any
WebInspect binary updates.
D.SmartUpdate automatically omits security checks whose specified server/application type does not
match the current targets server/application fingerprint.
Answer:C

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NO.6 Click the Task button. Match the tools listed in the blue boxes beside the correct purpose. When
finished, click the Done button to submit your answer. Answer & Explanation Correct Answer
Explanations No more information available
Answer:

NO.7 Which is a valid option for Log File Purge settings under Application Settings?
A.Purge When Exit
B.By Total Scan Size
C.By Log File Number
D.Purge on SmartUpdate
Answer:C

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NO.8 How do you promote vulnerabilities into defect tracking in Quality Center?
A.Use AMP integration.
B.Use the WebInspect Command Line utility.
C.Click the Quality Center icon on the toolbar.
D.Right-click the vulnerability in the Vulnerability Pane.
Answer:D

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NO.9 In the WebInspect GUI, where can you find a full description of a discovered vulnerability?
A.within the Host info
B.within the Session info
C.within the Summary pane
D.within the Compliance Manager
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which macro option will play and then start the scan off at its last recorded session, and none of the
earlier sessions will be crawled and audited?
A.Start Macro
B.Login Macro
C.Logout Macro
D.Use macro for entry
Answer:D

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NO.11 By default, what are the three response codes that would halt a scan on the first request?
A.404, 407, 502
B.200, 302, 404
C.304, 302, 500
D.403, 404, 500
Answer:A

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NO.12 Which statement best describes the role of the "Web Form Values" file?
A.The WebForm Values file is part of the standard policy.
B.The WebForm Values file is generated during a scan to capture test parameters used during the scan.
C.The WebForm Values file contains parameter names and provides static values to be submitted when
testing webforms.
D.The WebForm Values file is used to establish and maintain "state" with the application by monitoring
webform authentication methods.
Answer:C

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NO.13 What is a logout signature?
A.a snapshot of the session state found when the user has lost session state
B.a regular expression used to identify those responses that indicate session state has been lost
C.the toolbar feature in Web Macro Recorder which automatically determines the macros regular
expression
D.a user-supplied keyword that will be inserted into the WebInspect scan data to indicate each response
where a logout occurred
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which tool will you use to create a filter that can help identify every instance of a 302 redirection while
browsing the web application?
A.Web Proxy
B.SQL Injector
C.HTTP Injector
D.Web Browser
Answer:A

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NO.15 Which regular expression best matches the string 345-12-9876?
A.\d
B.\d*.$
C.\d{3-2-4}
D.\d{3}-\d{2}-\d{4}
Answer:D

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NO.16 Which option best describes a Manual Crawl (Step Mode) scan?
A.This scan spiders the website, discovering all links and pages therein.
B.This scan forces the user to provide all of the site pages by hand via their browser while the audit
performs attacks.
C.This scan discovers links/pages while attacking the same pages, running with multiple threads. A
recursion setting allows new items discovered in the attack phase to be spidered further.
D.This scan fully discovers the site structure first, followed by a phase of attacks of the same pages. A
recursion setting allows new items discovered in the attack phase to be spidered further.
Answer:B

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NO.17 What are some uses of regular expressions in WebInspect? Select two.
A.They are used for response filtering and may be customized.
B.They are used for filtering the vulnerabilities in the Dashboard.
C.They are used for detecting the logout signature in a Login Macro.
D.They are used for defect reporting when WebInspect is linked to Quality Center.
E.They are used to group vulnerabilities in the Vulnerabilities tab in the Summary pane.
Answer:A C

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NO.18 How do you initiate the WebInspect Command Line?
A.via the wi.exe program
B.via the WebInspect toolkit
C.via the scheduler.exe program
D.via the Advanced Assessment panel
Answer:A

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NO.19 What is the difference between a Login Macro and a Start Macro? Select two.
A.The Start Macro will run any time state needs to be re-established.
B.The Start Macro is used to populate the assessment with known URLs.
C.The Login Macro runs any time a page response matches its logout signature.
D.The Login Macro only runs once to gain session state at the beginning of the assessment.
E.The Start Macro is the Login Macro being forced to run once at the beginning of the assessment.
Answer:B C

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NO.20 After completing a Crawl-Only scan and clicking on the Audit button, which scan policy will be used?
A.the policy selected by the user on-screen
B.the policy listed in the Default Scan Settings
C.the policy specified in the Application Settings
D.the policy specified in the Current Scan Settings
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S21
Nom d'Examen: HP (Integrating and Managing HP BladeSystem in the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Which feature does HP Modular Cooling System (MCS) provide that other solutions do not?
A. hot-swappable fans and heat exchangers
B. enhanced racks that do not affect the noise level of the data center
C. environmental control
D. 42U racks with three-phase power support
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which logical extension of the HP Insight Dynamics - VSE Suite provides failure protection for logical
servers?
A. Insight Orchestration
B. Insight Rapid Deployment
C. Insight Systems Manager
D. Insight Recovery Software
prerequisite
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which operating system or systems require FTP services if you are going to use the HP Insight Rapid
Deployment 3.8 solution for deployment?
A. Microsoft Windows Server 2003
B. Red HatEnterprise Linux Server
C. HP-UX v2 and HP-UX v3
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2008
Answer: B

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NO.4 What do you need to consider when installing mezzanine cards in an HP ProLiant BL685c G6 Server
Blade? (Select two.)
A. Type 2 mezzanine cards can be installed in slots 2 and/or 3 if they match the interconnect module type.
B. Type 2 mezzanine cards can be installed in any slot if they match the interconnect module type.
C. Type 2 mezzanine cards need to be installed in slot 1 and match the interconnect module type.
D. Type 1 mezzanine cards can be installed in any slot if they match the interconnect module type.
Answer: A,D

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NO.5 Which HP Insight Control Suite software provides centralized capture, monitor, report, and control of
HP BladeSystem power consumption and thermal output?
A. HPProLiant Insight Power Regulator
B. HPProLiant Onboard Administrator
C. HP Insight Power Manager
D. HP Insight Diagnostics Online Edition
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which industry standard management protocols are used by HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. SSH
B. SNMP
C. DMI
D. XML
E. SMTP
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 You are troubleshooting a performance issue on a BL460c Server Blade with a Linux operating system
installed. Which command should you use to get comprehensive memory information?
A. iostat
B. glance
C. free
D. memdiag
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which component is required to connect a c-Class server blade to an HP StorageWorks MSA
2012sa?
A. Smart Array P700m
B. Smart Array P411
C. HP PCI Express Mezzanine Pass-Thru Card
D. Smart Array E200i
Answer: A

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NO.9 A customer wants to deploy a c7000 enclosure and six server blades in a data center with limited
power. What can they do to ensure the solution fits within the available data center power envelope?
A. Make sure they have three L15-30 power receptacles available.
B. Use the HPBladeSystem Sizer to determine how much power is needed for the configuration they want
to deploy.
C. Use the HP Rack and Power Tool to determine how much power is needed for the
configuration they want to deploy.
D. Make sure they have at least 6750 watts of available power to every enclosure.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which benefits do you gain from migrating traditional rack mounted servers into an HP
BladeSystem c7000 Virtual Connect solution? (Select two.)
A. decreased dependency on facility cooling to host the business applications
B. consolidation of infrastructure, power, and cooling
C. ability to power c7000BladeSystem chassis using standard 5-15 power receptacles
D. virtualization of logical LAN/SAN connections that enables simplified management and
provisioning
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 What is required when you install and deploy an HP BladeSystem c7000 enclosure that has a
three-phase power module?
A. A minimum of three c-Class power supply modules must be installed.
B. Six power supplies must be installed.
C. Both active and redundant Onboard Administrator modules must be installed.
D. A full-height server blade must be installed in Bay 8.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which Brocade SAN Switch feature allows you to connect the internal SAN Switches of a c7000 to a
Cisco fabric without raising the switch hop count?
A. Access Gateway Mode
B. Inter-Switch LinkTrunking
C. Extended Fabric
D. Enhanced Group Management
Answer: A

HP examen   HP0-S21   HP0-S21   HP0-S21

NO.13 What is the maximum number of Cisco 3120 Switches that can be combined into a single logical
stack?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 9
E. 12
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which memory slots must be populated first in a ProLiant BL490c G6?
A. blue
B. white
C. black
D. brown
Answer: B

HP   HP0-S21   HP0-S21   HP0-S21

NO.15 What are the customer benefits of licensing all the HP ProLiant BL-series server blades with an HP
iLO Advanced for BladeSystem license? (Select two.)
A. supports scripted multi-server support for virtual media
B. provides support for two-factor authentication for enhanced enterprise security
C. activates the secured virtual KVM terminal pass-thru console
D. allows local use of RBSU
Answer: A,B

HP   HP0-S21   HP0-S21

NO.16 "This type of node is used for most tasks, including computing many types of applications. These
nodes also provide I/O and file system access, usually in the form of an HBA to access an MSA2000
subsystem, or an external SAN."
Which HP Cluster Platform node does this definition refer to?
A. Storage Node
B. Utility Node
C. Visualization Node
D. Compute Node
Answer: B

HP   HP0-S21   HP0-S21   HP0-S21   HP0-S21

NO.17 Which feature is used in conjunction with the Trusted Platform Module (TPM)?
A. OpenSSH
B. LDAP
C. BitLocker
D. HP SIM
Answer: C

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NO.18 Microsoft Cluster Server is an example of which type of clustering architecture?
A. shared-memory
B. High-Performance Computing
C. shared-everything
D. shared-nothing
Answer: D

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NO.19 What are capabilities of HP Insight Dynamics - VSE? (Select four.)
A. facilitates a highly complex solution
B. provisions infrastructure consistently
C. balances physical and virtual resources
D. creates a homogeneous environment
E. plans capacity and power continuously
F. enables cost-effective availability
Answer: B,C,E,F

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NO.20 Which industry standard memory technologies can be used by Intel Xeon-based c-Class server blades
to provide additional protection against failed or degrading FB-DIMMs? (Select two.)
A. chip spare
B. mirrored memory
C. parity memory
D. online spare memory
Answer: B,D

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