2014年7月13日星期日

C2040-913 A2010-005 dernières questions d'examen certification IBM et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: C2040-913
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Developing Websites with IBM Lotus Web Content Mgmt 7.0)
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A2010-005
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assess: IBM Maximo Asset Management V7.1 Solution Designer)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which data is commonly imported into the IBM maximo asset management V7.1
through an interface
when integrated with an exatermal purchasing system ?
A. assets
B. work orders
C. vendor data
D. meter readings
Answer: C

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NO.2 At which date level do contracts,Labor,and chart of Accounts reside?
A. set
B. site
C. system
D. organization
Answer: D

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NO.3 At which data level do asset,locations,and purchase orders reside?
A. set
B. site
C. system
D. organization
Answer: B

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NO.4 At a high leve1,around which three data levels are IBM Maximo Asset Management
V7.1 functionality
and security built?(Choose three)
A. site
B. system
C. assets
D. Locations
E. Work Order
F. Organization
Answer: ABF

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NO.5 The client requirements outline the need for advanced tracking of process
measurements such as
temperature,pressure,and flow. These measurement and test equipment requirments are
determined to
exceed standard IBM Maximo Asset Management capabilities.Which industry solution or
add-on will
provide this and other features?
A. Maximo Calibration
B. Maximo for service Providers
C. Maximo linear assest
D. Maximo lnstruments and controls
Answer: A

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NO.6 A customer wants to produce bar code labels for Assets containing specification
data,Which type of
requirement will this be considered as?
A. configuration
B. custom report
C. customization
D. class file extension
Answer: B

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NO.7 A client needs any work order that is created to be categorized by using specific
codes:DF=defact(reactive),DB=breakdown(reactive),RT=routine(planned),SF=safety(planned
).and
CAPEX=capital expenditure (capital).This is to allow the to report the difference between
proactive,recative,and capital works.Which organization option will be use to fefine these
codes?
A. work type
B. categories
C. work options
D. classifications
Answer: A

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NO.8 if a customer has a requirements list,when is the best time to review this list with the
customer and
classify the requirements?
A. at the end of the design phase
B. as the first task of Design phase
C. during the process design workshops
D. at the beginning of the configuration phase
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2040-440
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal & Portal Products Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

Code d'Examen: C2180-374
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ V7.0, System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 157 Q&As

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NO.1 Virtual Member Manager (VMM) is configured to leverage an LDAP server's membership
attribute.The
LDAP server's membership attribute includes direct groups only. Access to IBM WebSphere Portal
resources has been assigned based on nested group membership. What configuration options
should be
changed or verified?
A.Change VMM membership attribute to scope "all".
B.Change VMM membership attribute to scope "nested".
C.Leave VMM membership attribute as scope "direct". Enable WebSphere Portal nested groups.
D.Leave VMM membership attribute as scope "direct". Disable WebSphere Portal nested groups.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator creates a page and denies access to anonymous users. The friendly URL for
this page
is /wps/myportal/page1. J2EE authentication is enabled. Which default authentication level could
be
associated with this page such that users who selected "Remember me on this computer" when
logging in
previously will not be prompted for credentials when requesting /wps/myportal/page1?
A.Identified
B.Standard
C.Authorized
D.Authenticated
Answer: A

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5. What is one thing to check when troubleshooting friendly URLs?
A.If a web content viewer is not configured to broadcast links, links rendered by the viewer will
affect the
friendly URL for web content.
B.Support for friendly URLs for web content is only enabled when either of the configuration
properties
friendly.enabled or
friendly.pathinfo.enabled has a value of true in the portal Configuration Service.
C.It does not matter if the target page does not contain a web content viewer that is configured to
receive
links. The content item specified in the
friendly URL for web content will be displayed either way.
D.The portal page specified in the friendly URL for web content must contain a content mapping to
an
existing web content site area.If there is no
content mapping on the page, any web content viewers on the page display a warning message
about the
missing page context.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What special considerations exist for logging out users authenticated by an external security
manager
(ESM)?
A.whether and how to expire the ESM's cookies
B.what role mappings to assign the default login portlet
C.how to clear the authorization context in the ESM's session
D.how to bypass the trust association interceptor during the logout
Answer: A

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NO.4 IBM WebSphere Portal supports which three of the following portlet specifications? (Choose
three.)
A.IBM Portlet API
B.Generic Portlet 1.0
C.Portlet 2.0 (JSR 286)
D.Portlet 1.0 (JSR 168)
E.IBM Web Content Manager Portlet 1.0
F.IBM Web Experience Factory specification 1.5
Answer: A,C,D

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Dernières IBM A2040-920 000-N33 000-M25 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: A2040-920
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-N33
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM i2 IntelligenceTechnical Mastery Test v1)
Questions et réponses: 27 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-M25
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Rational Team Concert Technical Sales Mastery Test)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 Which aspect of the Software Delivery Lifecycle is a key capability of Rational Team Concert?
A.Business Modeling
B.Iteration Planning
C.Prototyping
D.Component Assembly
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which capabilities of Rational Team Concert allow for the transparent collaboration of teams across
geographically distributed locations?
A.Team reports/web dashboards and a WAN-enabled repository facilitate remote collaboration.
B.Video conferencing and VOIP support allows ad-hoc meetings with team members at any location.
C.Multilingual and translation support 17 common languages and dialects.
D.Fully integrated FTP and rcp (remote copy) support allows team members to copy files to/from any
location.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which feature of Rational Team Concert (RTC) makes it more valuable to a Team Lead than competing
products?
A.Customizable dashboards provide a real-time view of project status.
B.RTC provides check-out/edit/check-in functionality.
C.Branching and merging is supported across multiple versions.
D.RTC provides advanced diff/change/delta analysis to find differences between versions.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What describes the overall objective of Rational Team Concert?
A.It is a team collaboration solution that seamlessly integrates common application lifecycle services.
B.It allows a development team to find and re-use development assets.
C.It provides an open-source Integrated Development Environment.
D.It provides a UML-based visual modeling and design tool.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which Rational Team Concert client license type entitles full access to all capabilities?
A.Contributor
B.Developer
C.Designer
D.Administrator
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C2040-915
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution Development)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A2040-928
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Assessment: Developing Websites Using IBM Web Content Manager 8.0 )
Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BAS-001
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM OpenPages Developer Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Kellan wants to create a Breadcrumbs Navigator. To what should he set the start type?
A. Selected
B. Current Site Area
C. Current Top Level Site Area
D. Current Content
Answer: B

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NO.2 An Authoring Tool component can be added to any of the technical assets listed, except for
which option?
A. Menu component
B. Presentation template
C. Navigator component
D. Authoring template
Answer: D

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NO.3 Tom wants to write out a fully qualified URL to a content item being viewed through a portal.
Which one of the following tags allows him to retrieve the protocol, host name, and port
information for the URL?
A. [pathcmpnt tag="base"/]
B. [pathcmpnt tag="noprefixbase"/]
C. [path tag="base"/]
D. [path tag="noprefixbase"/]
Answer: B

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NO.4 Priscilla has been tasked to configure an authoring environment. One requirement is to
automatically append a wildcard character to the end of search terms when entered in the basic
search field. How does she configure this action?
A. Within the IBM WebSphere Portal administration console, Priscilla must edit the IBM Web
Content Manager WCMConfigService service andmodify the value of
wcm.authoringui.simplesearch.addstar to true.
B. Within the WebSphere Portal administration console, Priscilla must edit the Web Content
Manager WCMConfigService service and modify thevalue of
wcm.authoringui.simplesearch.appendstar to true.
C. Within the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, Priscilla must edit the Web Content
Manager WCMConfigService service and modifythe value of wcm.authoringui.simplesearch.addstar
to true.
D. Within the WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, Priscilla must edit the Web Content
Manager WCMConfigService service and modify thevalue of
wcm.authoringui.simplesearch.appendstar to true.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Wesley is a content developer, and Lauren is a content creator. Lauren is entering products
into the IBM Web Content Manager website. One requirement for the site is that each product
content item can optionally have a product picture. What can Wesley and Lauren do to facilitate this
requirement?
A. Lauren adds an image field to each content item and uploads the appropriate product image to
each content item. Wesley references theImage component in the presentation template.
B. Lauren creates an Image component in the Component library for each product image. Wesley
references the library components in thepresentation template.
C. Wesley adds an Image component to the product's site area. Lauren adds each product image to
the site area as new content items arecreated. Wesley references the site area images in the
presentation template.
D. Wesley adds an Image element to the authoring template. Lauren adds an image to each content
item using the Image element. Wesleyreferences the Image element in the presentation template.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The AT Printer Corp is a manufacturer of computer printers. They are building a new website
using IBM Web Content Manager. The site contains pages that describes each of their product lines.
When content creators are creating a product content item, they are required to include one of five
preformatted company slogans as a part of the content.
Which of the following actions can Jim, a developer, do to facilitate this requirement easily?
A. Jim creates an authoring template and adds all five slogans as HTML components to the
authoring
template. The HTML components are thenreferenced in an Option Selection element on the
authoring
template.
B. Jim first creates an Option Selection component in the Component library with all five slogans.
Jim then
adds this Option Selection componentto the authoring template using Manage Elements.
C. Jim gives content creators the Contributor role on the authoring template. Content Creators can
then
use Manage Elements to add a new fieldto each content item for the slogan.
D. Jim first creates five HTML components in the Component library; one for each slogan. Jim can
add a
Component Reference element to theauthoring template.
Answer: D

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NO.7 A content administrator would like to customize the initial interface of the Authoring Portlet
so that content authors are presented with just two simplified options (create a news article and
view content drafts).
Which one of the following options best describes how the content administrator can achieve this?
A. Go into the authoring portlet configuration mode, expand the user interface section, and
configure the required settings.
B. Create a custom launch page that uses remote action URLs.
C. Go into the authoring portlet, edit shared settings mode, expand the user interface section, and
configure the required settings.
D. Customize the initial interface by modifying the portlet's default.jsp file.
Answer: B

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NO.8 For draft items, each of the characteristics are true, except which one?
A. Cancelling a draft is essentially the same as deleting a draft because all the changes made to the
item
are discarded.
B. For draft items in a project that are ready to be published, the draft remains in a pending state
until all
items in the project are ready to bepublished.
C. Draft items are only displayed in the Authoring portlet and are not rendered within the published
website.
D. Even if a published item has more than one draft, the Manage Drafts button is displayed only on
the
published version of the item.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: P2080-096
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Unica Enterprise Campaign Technical Mastery Test V1)
Questions et réponses: 91 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 000-055
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Rational Automation Framework for WebSphere)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three artifacts can be created using the RAFW_EnvironmentGenerationWizard project in the
Environment wizard? (Choose three.)
A. the RAFW collector
B. the actual cell in WebSphere
C. the <env>-<cell> project in Build Forge
D. the <env>-<cell> environment in Build Forge
E. the cell definition in RAFW_HOME/user/environments
Answer: C,D,E

IBM   certification 000-055   000-055 examen   certification 000-055

NO.2 Which rafw command option is used to get inline help for a given action?
A. rafw -t
B. rafw -h
C. rafw -d
D. rafw -l
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-055   certification 000-055   000-055 examen   000-055

NO.3 Which two options for the integrateToBF command add actions to Build Forge as libraries? (Choose
two.)
A. createAll
B. createUITab
C. createLibraries
D. createIntegrationArtifacts
Answer: A,C

IBM examen   certification 000-055   000-055 examen

NO.4 Which two commands can be used to add actions to Build Forge as libraries? (Choose two.)
A. rafw
B. rafwEnvBuild
C. integrateToBF
D. manageBFLibs
Answer: C,D

IBM examen   000-055   certification 000-055

NO.5 What is the purpose of the rafw -t command option?
A. to execute an action on a target computer
B. to list all available actions for a given scope
C. to copy configuration data files from one scope to another in the environment tree
D. to import configuration data from an existing cell to its cell definition in the environment tree
Answer: A

IBM   000-055   000-055

NO.6 Where is the configuration for the Build Forge integration stored?
A. in the build forge database
B. the configure.properties file in RAFW_HOME
C. in the buildforge.conf file in BF_HOME/product
D. in the buildforge.properties file in RAFW_HOME
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-055   000-055

NO.7 How is additional logging and tracing for debug purposes enabled in RAFW?
A. use the RAFW_TRACE environment variable
B. change the source code in RAFW_HOME/product/lib/jython/Logger.py
C. set the .level key to TRACE in the logging.properties file in RAFW_HOME
D. change the .level key in configure.properties file in RAFW_HOME to TRACE
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which rafw command option lists all available actions for a given scope.?
A. rafw -t
B. rafw -h
C. rafw -d
D. rafw -l
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-055   000-055   000-055 examen   certification 000-055

Le matériel de formation de l'examen de meilleur IBM 000-027 00M-609 A2150-006

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Code d'Examen: 000-027
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 Implementation )
Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 00M-609
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Insurance Industry Solutions Sales Mastery Test v1 Exam )
Questions et réponses: 30 Q&As

Code d'Examen: A2150-006
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 158 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two applications can be used to view actual costs for labor, materials, services, and tools?
(Choose two.)
A. Labor Reporting
B. Quick Reporting
C. Work Order Tracking
D. Assignment Manager
E. Work Order Management
Answer: BC

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NO.2 What does the ABC designation include for inventory items?
A. Quantity reserved in stock
B. Quantity expired for a particular Lot
C. Count Frequency in number of days
D. Activity Based Costing in capital dollars
Answer: C

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NO.3 What must be done in order to automatically close the purchase requisition (PR) after one or more
purchase orders (PO) have been created?
A. All PR lines must be assigned to a PO.
B. The PR must be in the Approved status.
C. The PR must enter the workflow process.
D. All manual company input fields must be completed.
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-027 examen   000-027   000-027   000-027 examen

NO.4 What must be created before populating the Tools application?
A. Item Sets
B. Item Master Owner
C. Vendors for the Items
D. Storeroom assignment
Answer: A

certification IBM   certification 000-027   000-027

NO.5 Which statement is true about items that have been assembled into a kit?
A. Only rotating items can be part of a kit.
B. Kits can be assembled from lotted items.
C. Kits can be assembled from items in different storerooms.
D. Items that have been assembled into kits do not appear in item balances.
Answer: D

IBM   000-027 examen   000-027 examen   certification 000-027

NO.6 Which statement is true about item records and inventory management?
A. With IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM), item records are created in the Item Master
application, and storeroom records are created in the Storerooms application, but inventory is
managed in the Inventory application.
B. With IMAM, item records are created in the Storerooms application, and storeroom records are created
in the Inventory application, but inventory is managed in the Inventory application.
C. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are created in
the Item Master application, and inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
D. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are created in
the Storerooms application, but inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
Answer: A

IBM   000-027   certification 000-027   certification 000-027   000-027

NO.7 What should be done to add lines from a Purchase Request (PR) to a Requests for Quotation (RFQ)?
A. Hyperlink to the PR tab and add each line.
B. Go to the Vendors tab in the RFQ application and click Create PO.
C. Go to the Quotation tab in the RFQ application and select RFQ lines.
D. Select Action in the RFQ application and click Copy PR line item to RFQ.
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-027   000-027 examen   000-027 examen

NO.8 Which menu option must be used to grant a user the authority to add or remove users to one or more
Security Groups?
A. Security Controls
B. Database Access
C. Set Security Profile
D. Authorize Group Reassignment
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-027   certification 000-027   000-027 examen   000-027 examen

2014年7月10日星期四

CompTIA JK0-U31 225-030 JK0-U21 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JK0-U31
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Strata IT Technology Exam)
Questions et réponses: 276 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 225-030
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CDIA+ Certification)
Questions et réponses: 170 Q&As

Code d'Examen: JK0-U21
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Technology Exam)
Questions et réponses: 241 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following devices can cause great harm to one's life with lethal electric shocks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SMPS
B. Floppy drive
C. Monitor
D. Keyboard.
Answer: A, C

certification CompTIA   certification JK0-U31   JK0-U31 examen
Explanation:
A computer monitor and SMPS are at high voltage. Therefore, these devices can be fatal. They
usually have large amount of electric charge stored in capacitors for days after they have been
unplugged from power source. What is SMPS? Switch Mode Power Supply (SMPS) is a device that
converts raw input power to controlled voltage and current for the operation of electronic
equipment. SMPS uses switches for high efficiency. Answer options D and B are incorrect.
Keyboards and floppy drives do not store electric charge. Therefore, they cannot cause lethal
electric shocks.

NO.2 Which of the following can be used to accomplish authentication? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Biometrics
B. Encryption
C. Password
D. Token
Answer: A,C,D

CompTIA examen   certification JK0-U31   JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
The following can be used to accomplish authentication.
1.Password
2.Biometrics
3.Token A password is a secret word or string of characters that is used for authentication, to prove
identity, or gain access to a resource. What is authentication? Authentication is a process of
verifying the identity of a person, network host, or system process. The authentication process
compares the provided credentials with the credentials stored in the database of an authentication
server. What is biometrics?Biometrics is a method of authentication that uses physical
characteristics, such as fingerprints, scars, retinal patterns, and other forms of biophysical qualities
to identify a user. Nowadays, the usage of biometric devices such as hand scanners and retinal
scanners is becoming more common in the business environment. A token may be a physical device
or software token that an authorized user of computer services is given to ease authentication.
Answer option B is incorrect. Encryption can be used to accomplish security and not authentication.

NO.3 Which of the following transmits all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio?
A. DVI
B. S-Video
C. SVGA
D. HDMI
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-U31 examen   certification JK0-U31   JK0-U31 examen
Explanation:
HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface. It is a standard, uncompressed, and all-digital
audio/video interface. HDMI is capable of delivering the highest quality digital video and multi-
channel digital audio on a single cable. It provides an interface between any audio/video sources,
such as a DVD player or a computer and a digital television (DTV) or video monitor. HDMI transmits
all ATSC HDTV standards and supports 8-channel digital audio, with extra bandwidth to
accommodate future enhancements. HDMI has two types of connectors. Type A and Type B.
Type A and Type B connectors use 19 pins and 29 pins, respectively. The Type B connector is
designed for very high-resolution displays that are expected in near future. Answer option B is
incorrect. S-Video, also known as Y/C video, stands for Super-Video. It is a technology for video
transmission. Using this technology, the video is transmitted into two separate signals.
One is used for color, and the other for brightness. Sometimes S-Video signals are considered as a
type of component video signal. However, its quality is inferior to other complex component video
schemes such as RGB. This technology produces sharper images than those produced by composite
video, which carries the entire set of signals in a single line. For using S- Video, the device sending
the signal must support S-Video output and the device receiving the signal needs to have an
S-Video input jack. Answer option A is incorrect. DVI stands for Digital Visual Interface. It is a
standard for high speed, high resolution digital display invented by Digital Display Working Group
(DDWG). DVI accommodates analog and digital interfaces with a single connector. New video cards
have DVI as well as VGA ports built into them. Most of LCD monitors come with a 15-pin VGA
connection cable, even if they are capable of handling digital signals coming from DVI connections.
However, some monitors come with both types of cables. DVI has three main categories of
connectors. They are. DVI-A, DVI-D, and DVI-I. DVI-A is an analog-only
connector, DVI-D is a digital-only connector, and DVI-I is an analog/digital connector. DVI-D and DVI-I
connectors are of two types. single link and dual link. DVI supports UXGA and HDTV with a single set
of links. Higher resolutions such as 1920 x 1080, 2048 x 1536, or more can be supported with dual
links. Answer option C is incorrect. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female
connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors. Reference:
"http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/High-Definition_Multimedia_Interface"

NO.4 Which of the following programs can collect various types of personal information,
such as Internet surfing habits, and Web sites that the user has visited?
A. Malware
B. Spyware
C. Honeypot
D. Worm
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   certification JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31   JK0-U31 examen
Explanation:
Spyware is a program that takes partial control over a user's computer without user's permission.
Spyware programs can collect various types of personal information, such as Internet surfing habits,
and Web sites that the user has visited. Spyware programs can also interfere with the control of a
user's computer, such as installing additional software, redirecting Web browser activities, accessing
Web sites blindly, etc. Answer option C is incorrect. A honeypot is a term in computer terminology
used for a trap that is set to detect, deflect, or in some manner counteract attempts at unauthorized
use of information systems. Generally it consists of a computer, data, or a network site that appears
to be part of a network, but is actually isolated, and monitored, and which seems to contain
information or a resource of value to attackers. Answer option A is incorrect. The term malware
refers to malicious software, which is a broad class of malicious viruses, including spyware. Malware
is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner. Answer option D
is incorrect. A worm is a software program that uses computer networks and security holes to
replicate itself from one computer to another. It usually performs malicious actions, such as using
the resources of computers as well as shutting down computers.
Reference: "http.//en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spyware"

NO.5 You are handling IT support for a sales company. One of the sales representatives complains
that his laptop does not have a network card. You wish to add one via an expansion slot. What type
of expansion card should you use?
A. MCA
B. PCMCIA
C. PCI
D. AGP
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   JK0-U31 examen   certification JK0-U31   JK0-U31   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
PCMCIA is a widely used expansion card slot for laptops. What is PCMCIA card? Personal Computer
Memory Card International Association (PCMCIA) card is also known as PC card. The PC card uses a
small expansion slot and is primarily used in laptops. However, PC cards are also available in some of
the desktop computers. There are three types of PCMCIA cards. 1.Type I 2.Type II 3.Type III Answer
option C is incorrect. PCI slots are used in PC's, not laptops. Answer option D is incorrect. AGP is a
legacy
graphics slot for PC's. What is AGP (Accelerated Graphics Port)? AGP is a high speed 32-bit bus
designed for high performance graphics and video support. It allows a video card to have direct
access to a computer's RAM, which enables fast video performance. AGP provides a bandwidth of
up to 2,133 MB/second. Answer option A is incorrect. MCA is a legacy PC slot.
Reference:
http.//www.wisegeek.com/what-is-an-expansion-card.htm

NO.6 Which of the following devices is used for accessing the data on Secure Digital (SD)
card, MMC card, and CompactFlash (CF)?
A. E-book reader
B. Memory card reader
C. Smart card reader
D. Barcode reader
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   JK0-U31 examen   JK0-U31 examen   certification JK0-U31   JK0-U31 examen
Explanation:
A memory card reader is a device, typically having a USB interface, for accessing the data on a
memory card such as a CompactFlash (CF), Secure Digital (SD) or MultiMediaCard (MMC). Answer
option C is incorrect. Smart card readers are used to read smart cards. It is used as a
communications medium between the smart card and a host. Answer option D is
incorrect. A barcode reader (or barcode scanner) is an electronic device for reading printed
barcodes. Answer option A is incorrect. There is no such device as e-book reader.

NO.7 Which of the following are types of LCD monitors? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose two.
A. SVGA
B. Active Matrix
C. Passive Matrix
D. X-Matrix
Answer: B,C

CompTIA examen   JK0-U31 examen   certification JK0-U31   JK0-U31 examen
Explanation:
Two types of LCDs are available. Active matrix Passive matrix Active matrix LCDs uses individual
transistors to control each pixel on the screen. This type of LCD consumes
more power but provides sharper images than the passive matrix LCD. Passive matrix Passive matrix
screens do not refresh quickly to rapid changes. The passive matrix screen displays weak colors.
LCDs consume less power and are cheaper than Active matrix LCDs. Answer option A is incorrect.
SVGA is a type of CRT monitor used with the Desktop computers, and not the LCD monitor. Answer
option D is incorrect. There is no LCD display type such as X-Matrix.

NO.8 Which of the following statements about a riser card is true?
A. It is used to connect a computer in a network.
B. It is used to connect extra microprocessors.
C. It provides extra memory for expansion cards.
D. It is used to extend slots for expansion cards.
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   JK0-U31 examen   JK0-U31 examen   certification JK0-U31
Explanation:
Riser card is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the ability
to connect additional expansion
cards to the computer. These cards are used with LPX motherboards.
With the introduction of ATX motherboards, riser cards are rarely used. In ATX motherboards, the
expansion cards
connect directly to the computer motherboard instead of using riser cards. What is
LPX? LPX is a motherboard form or that is used in some desktop computers. In
LPX motherboards, expansion cards are inserted into a riser card that contains several
slots. Unlike other common form ors such as AT and ATX, the expansion cards in LPX
are not vertical, but parallel to the motherboard. The LPX form or is designed for
smaller cases, and usually it is used for connecting two or three expansion cards.

COGNOS BI0-210 BI0-132 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: BI0-210
Nom d'Examen: COGNOS (IBM Cognos 8 BI Professional)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BI0-132
Nom d'Examen: COGNOS (Cognos 8 BI Metadata Model Developer)
Questions et réponses: 53 Q&As

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NO.1 Are you an:
A. IBM Customer
B. IBM Partner
C. IBM Employee
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST describes the relationship or differences between Iterative Approach and
Cognos SIM?
A. The Iterative Approach is a specific technique used to iterate through the Design phase.
B. The Iterative Approach is a series of steps defined in the Analysis and Development phases of Cognos
SIM.
C. The Iterative Approach is a philosophy of development while Cognos SIM is a collection of tasks,
documents, and techniques to guide development.
D. Cognos SIM is the current Cognos development standard and is intended to replace the Iterative
Approach for development of BI applications.
Answer: C

COGNOS   certification BI0-210   BI0-210 examen

NO.3 Which of the following MOST clearly states the value of using a methodology?
A. It provides a philosophy of development that maximizes return on investment.
B. It helps consultants progress in a systematic way to insure all critical steps are addressed.
C. It helps project managers estimate the cost and effort in developing a solution.
D. It ensures that early mistakes are avoided in developing a solution.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following is a significant cause of failure when using the technology-focused approach to
BI Application development?
A. Users often have difficulty understanding new technology.
B. New technology often contains internal flaws and errors that affect the delivered solution.
C. The solution is focused on a single subject area.
D. Developers often focus on just the data.
Answer: D

COGNOS   BI0-210 examen   BI0-210 examen   BI0-210

NO.5 If you are successful with this exam, do you agree to have your name made available to relevent IBM
personnel for project staffing?
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A

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Les meilleures CIW 1D0-571 1D0-61A 1D0-61B examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1D0-571
Nom d'Examen: CIW (CIW v5 Security Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 62 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1D0-61A
Nom d'Examen: CIW (Internet Business Associate)
Questions et réponses: 57 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1D0-61B
Nom d'Examen: CIW (Site Development Associate)
Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 Marcella is looking for a very unique product online. She has found one on the XYZ Company's
Web site, which is designed well and appears to be legitimate. As she navigates through the
checkout process, she reaches the checkout page with this URL, which asks her to enter her credit
card information:
http://XYZ.com/gp/checkout.html/ref=chk_out_TLS12B_lb?ie=UTF8&docId=10007931
Why should Marcella cancel her online transaction instead of proceeding?
A. Because the site uses 128-bit encryption, which is illegal for companies that are located overseas
B. Because the link contains abbreviations and is not completely readable, so Marcella is unsure of
the server name
C. Because the link does not use SSL/TLS encryption and therefore the information Marcella enters
would not be secure
D. Because the link uses SSL/TLS encryption, which Marcella knows is not compatible with the
browser she is using
Answer: C

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NO.2 An end user cannot log in to a page that provides an c-learning course. The authentication
window will not launch. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
A. Pop-up blocking software has been enabled in the operating system.
B. The browser has recently had its cookie cache cleared.
C. The browser has recently had its browsing history cleared.
D. Pop-up blocking software has been enabled in the Web browser.
Answer: D

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NO.3 To reduce the costs of maintaining servers with FTP access; your company is using P2P to
facilitate sharing of information. Which strategy should your company use to protect the company's
sensitive information while capitalizing on the benefits of P2P power?
A. Limit P2P use to sharing music files.
B. Restrict employees from using their computers in P2P communications.
C. Use technologies that will control access and password-protect files.
D. Restrict P2P use to sharing only with universities and research organizations.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Michelle wants to search for a scuba regulator. She plans to use a keyword search engine. She
does not want to see any results from the manufacturer named Scubapro. Which of the following
search strings should she use?
A. Regulators !Scubapro
B. Regulators Scubapro
C. Regulators <Scubapro
D. Regulators >Scubapro
Answer: A

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NO.5 One of your co-workers calls you to ask if you sent her an e-mail message with an attachment.
You recall that you sent several c-mails with attachments earlier that day. Which of the following is
your best response to this question?
A. Ask your co-worker to open the attachment and describe the contents.
B. Ask your co-worker to read the e-mail message including the full name of the attachment and its
extension.
C. Ask your co-worker to forward the e-mail to you so you can open the attachment and check it.
D. Ask your co-worker to forward the e-mail to your company's management.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Melanie works in the sales department at XYZ Company. She decides that her company's
marketing team has done a poor job representing the company's brand. Without direction or
permission, she starts her own social networking account to help. This account's name is called
XYZProfessional. To customize her page, she uses company logos and verbiage from the company
Web site. She then begins communicating with customers and individuals interested in XYZ via this
service. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response to Melanie's actions by the
company?
A. Providing a link to Melanie's page from the company's official social networking account
B. Sending Melanie a request from the company's Human Resources department to stop using
company logos, yet allowing her to continue using this social networking account
C. Adding references to Melanie's social networking page in the company's internal newsletter
D. Terminating Melanie's employment for copyright and trademark violation, with a
cease-and-desist letter asking for control of the account
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which is the preferred approach to communicate important action items in an e-mail message
to a co-worker?
A. Write the action items using all capital letters.
B. List the action items in a numbered or bulleted list for clarity.
C. Include emoticons to ensure the recipient understands your humor.
D. Describe all action items at length in a detailed paragraph in the middle of the message.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is a legal and ethical practice?
A. Copying someone else's written work found on the Internet and presenting it as your own, as
long as it is for schoolwork.
B. Trying shareware for free and paying for it only after you decide to keep using it.
C. Downloading copyrighted artwork and using it as a background on your Web site.
D. Downloading music and motion pictures as long as they are from a peer-to-peer network.
Answer: B

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Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix EdgeSight 4.5: Admin, Perf.Mon and Load Testing)
Questions et réponses: 101 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 1Y0-264
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Ctrix Presentation Server 4.5: Support Exam)
Questions et réponses: 135 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator enabled a Health Monitoring and Recovery test to remove a server from the load
balance table upon failure.
What happens when a server is removed from the load balance table?
A. Existing user connections to that server are reset immediately.
B. No new connections are forwarded to that server for a period of one hour.
C. Existing user connections to that server are forced into a disconnected state.
D. No new connections are forwarded to that server until the server is manually re-added to the load
balance table.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Scenario: An administrator configured a streamed application. During the configuration the
administrator chose the "Streamed to server" option; however, users are not able to connect to the
streamed application.
What may be causing this issue?
A. The Streaming Profiler is NOT installed on the user devices.
B. The Streaming Profiler is NOT installed on all servers in the farm.
C. The Configure Delivery Protocol policy is configured to force server access.
D. The Configure Delivery Protocol policy is enabled to force streamed delivery for users.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When installing Presentation Server 4.5 an administrator received an error that the database
username or password is incorrect.
Which service failed to start in this scenario?
A. IMA
B. SMA
C. WMI
D. XML
Answer: A

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NO.4 Scenario: Users in an environment are reporting intermittent printing issues. The administrator has
identified a resolution to the issues, but would like to minimize any impact to the users until the issue is
resolved.
What should be done within Health Monitoring and Recovery?
A. The Microsoft Print Spooler should be configured to "alert only."
B. The Microsoft Print Spooler should be configured to "reboot server."
C. The Citrix Print Manager Service should be configured to restart the IMA Service upon failure.
D. The Citrix Print Manager Service should be configured to remove the server from the load balance
table.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Scenario: Several users connecting to a server running Presentation Server were not able to connect to
any applications. The administrator determined that this was due to a lost connection to the Citrix License
Server; however, there was no alert in the Access Management Console that indicated this lost
connection.
Which service should the administrator verify is enabled in order to view the alert in the Access
Management Console?
A. IMA
B. SMA
C. XML
D. XTE
Answer: B

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NO.6 The IT manager wants to track specific changes that were made by administrators to the Presentation
Server environment.
Which feature should be implemented?
A. SmartAuditor
B. Resource Manager
C. Configuration Logging
D. Health Monitoring and Recovery
Answer: C

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NO.7 Scenario: After attempting to execute the "Configure and run discovery" option in the Access
Management Console, the administrator receives the following error message:
"Errors occurred when using CPS_Server1 in the discovery process."
The administrator should verify that the __________Service is enabled. (Choose the correct option to
complete the sentence.)
A. IMA
B. SMA
C. XTE
D. MFCOM
Answer: D

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NO.8 Scenario: Users are attempting to connect to a Presentation Server farm using Program Neighborhood
Agent. However, they are unable to connect. An administrator suspects policies might be causing the
issue.
Through which type of connection should the administrator connect to first verify whether the issue is
caused by a Windows Group Policy setting or a Citrix Policy setting?
A. ICA
B. Web Interface
C. Customized ICA
D. Remote Desktop
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 1Y0-350
Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix NetScaler 10 Essentials and Networking)
Questions et réponses: 126 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix XenDesktop 5 Basic Administration Exam )
Questions et réponses: 85 Q&As

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Nom d'Examen: Citrix (Citrix Netsoaler 8.0: Administration Exam)
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NO.1 An SNMP manager attempted to poll for an OID but received the error message: "response timeout."
Which two options could the administrator have misconfigured for SNMPv2 to cause this error message?
(Choose two.)
A. SNMP user
B. SNMP group
C. SNMP manager
D. SNMP community
Answer: CD

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NO.2 What must an administrator configure the NetScaler log to record in order to know when someone has
altered the system configurations?
A. Access logs
B. Event messages
C. System counters
D. Audited commands
Answer: D

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NO.3 Scenario: A company has distributed Internet sites and installations are spread across multiple
network locations and requires load balancing to be based on the client's proximity to the site, with the
least amount of configuration.
What must the administrator do to ensure GSLB uses the appropriate load balancing method?
A. Enable and configure Dynamic Proximity based Global Server Load Balancing.
B. Enable Dynamic Network Proximity based on the RTT of the client accessing the load balancing virtual
server.
C. Enable DNS view based Static Proximity through an Advanced expression to extract the client IP and
compare it to the subnet of the site.
D. Enable Proximity based Global Server Load Balancing and use the location's database to enter the
MAC address of all the clients and the corresponding site to which they should make the connection.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which type of VLAN is used when an administrator leaves the NetScaler system interfaces on the
default VLAN?
A. Tagged
B. Port-based
C. MAC-based
D. Protocol-based
Answer: B

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NO.5 Scenario: An administrator is planning to deploy NetScaler systems in an environment with multiple IP
subnets, one of which is non-routable. The company is an online retailer and needs outbound
connections from the non-routable subnet in order to verify credit cards.
What will an administrator need to configure to meet the company's requirements?
A. SIP
B. USIP
C. RNAT
D. USNIP
E. Layer 2 mode
Answer: C

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NO.6 Scenario: A company based in Beijing was unable to reach their data center for more than a week due
to a nearby earthquake. The company now has Distributed Data Centers in multiple regions, including a
disaster recovery center, to increase redundancy. The company wants their new NetScaler systems to
load balance these
centers.
Which NetScaler feature will allow load balancing across these centers only for redundancy?
A. Global Server Load Balancing to make load balancing decisions between the two sites
B. TCP-based content switching to make a decision between the load balance virtual servers
C. Proximity-based Global Server Load Balancing based on the RTT of client requests to virtual servers
D. SNMP load monitor bound to each location and bound to the default NetScaler metric table and with
the appropriate SNMP OIDs to load balance the different locations
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which two modes could a NetScaler system be deployed in if all traffic must pass through the
NetScaler? (Choose two.)
A. HA inline
B. HA one-arm
C. Stand-alone inline
D. Stand-alone one-arm
Answer: AC

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NO.8 An administrator should configure Link Aggregation on a NetScaler system when __________.
(Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.)
A. redundancy on a half duplex operation is required
B. redundancy on an operation across multiple data rates is required
C. network connections between LAN switches and network servers require more than 1Gb/sec
D. network connections between LAN switches and network servers require more than 8 Gb/sec
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: CheckPoint (Check Point Certified Security Administrator R71)
Questions et réponses: 465 Q&As

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NO.1 For which service is it NOT possible to configure user authentication?
A.HTTPS
B.FTP
C.SSH
D.Telnet
Answer: C

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NO.2 Blocked connections

NO.3 What can NOT be selected for VPN tunnel sharing?
A.One tunnel per subnet pair
B.One tunnel per Gateway pair
C.One tunnel per pair of hosts
D.One tunnel per VPN domain pair
Answer: D

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NO.4 Gateway licenses
A.3, 4, 5, 6, 9, 12, 13
B.5, 6, 9, 12, 13
C.1, 2, 8, 10, 11
D.2, 4, 7, 10, 11
Answer: B

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3.You believe Phase 2 negotiations are failing while you are attempting to configure a site-to-site VPN
with one of your firm's business partners.Which SmartConsole application should you use to confirm your
suspicions?
A.SmartDashboard
B.SmartView Tracker
C.SmartUpdate
D.SmartView Status
Answer: C

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4.You are running a R71 Security Gateway on SecurePlatform, in case of a hardware failure.You have a
server with the exact same hardware and firewall version Installed.What backup method could be used to
quickly put the secondary firewall into production?
A.Upgrade_export
B.Manual backup
C.Snapshot
D.Backup
Answer: C

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5.Your company is still using traditional mode VPN configuration on all Gateways and policies.Your
manager now requires you to migrate to a simplified VPN policy to benefit from the new features.
This needs to be done with no downtime due to critical applications which must run constantly.How would
you start such a migration?
A.This cannot be done without downtime as a VPN between a traditional mode Gateway and a simplified
mode Gateway does not work.
B.You first need to completely rewrite all policies in simplified mode and then push this new policy to all
Gateways at the same time.
C.This can not be done as it requires a SIC- reset on the Gateways first forcing an outage.
D.Convert the required Gateway policies using the simplified VPN wizard, check their logic and then
migrate Gateway per Gateway.
Answer: D

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6.What physical machine must have access to the User Center public IP address when checking for new
packages with smartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate GUI PC
B.SmartUpdate Repository SQL database Server
C.A Security Gateway retrieving the new upgrade package
D.SmartUpdate installed Security Management Server PC
Answer: A

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7.In SmartView Tracker, which rule shows when a packet is dropped due to anti-spoofing?
A.Blank field under Rule Number
B.Rule 0
C.Cleanup Rule
D.Rule 1
Answer: B

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8.The URL Filtering Policy can be configured to monitor URLs in order to:
A.Log sites from blocked categories.
B.Redirect users to a new URL.
C.Block sites only once.
D.Alert the Administrator to block a suspicious site.
Answer: A

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9.The Customer has a small Check Point installation which includes one Windows XP workstation as
SmartConsole, one Solaris server working as security Management Server, and a third server running
SecurePlatform as Security Gateway.This is an Example of a (n):
A.Stand-Alone Installation.
B.Unsupported configuration
C.Distributed Installation
D.Hybrid Installation.
Answer: C

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10.You want to implement Static Destination NAT in order to provide external, Internet users access to an
internal Webserver that has a reserved (RFC 1918) IP address You have an unused valid IP address on
the network between your Security Gateway and ISP router.You control the router that sits between the
external interface of the firewall and the Internet.What is an alternative configuration if proxy ARP cannot
be used on your Security Gateway?
A.Place a static host route on the firewall for the valid IP address to the internal Web server.
B.Place a static ARP entry on the ISP router for the valid IP address to the firewall s external address.
C.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the ISP router instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
D.Publish a proxy ARP entry on the internal Web server instead of the firewall for the valid IP address.
Answer: B

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11.The third-shift Administrator was updating Security Management Server access settings in global
properties.He managed to lock all of the administrators out of their accounts.How should you unlock these
accounts?
A.Login to SmartDashboard as the special cpconfig_admin user account, right click on administrator
object and select Unlock.
B.Type fwm lock_admin -ua from the command line of the Security Manager server.
C.Reinstall the Security Management Server and restore using upgrade_import.
D.Delete the file admin.lock in the $fwDIR/tmp/ directory of the Security Management server.
Answer: B

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12.You find a suspicious connection from a problematic host.You decide that you want to block everything
from that whole network, not just the problematic host.You want to block this for an hour while you
investigate further, but you do not want to add any rules to the Rule Base.How do you achieve this?
A.Add a °t e m po r a r ¡± rule u si n g Sm a r t D ashbo ard an d s el e c t hi d e ru.
B.Create a Suspicious Activity Rule in SmartView Monitor
C.Use dbedit to script the addition of a rule directly into the Rule Bases_5_0.fws configuration file.
D.Select block intruder from the tools menu in SmartView Tracker.
Answer: B

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13.The Check Point Security Gateway's virtual machine (kernel) exists between which two layers of the
OSI model?
A.Session and Network layers
B.Application and Presentation layers
C.Physical and Data link layers
D.Network and Data link layers
Answer: D

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NO.5 Secure Platform WebUI Users

NO.6 A rule _______ is designed to log and drop all other communication that does not match another rule?
A.Stealth
B.Cleanup
C.Reject
D.Anti-Spoofing
Answer: B

CheckPoint examen   156-215.71 examen   156-215.71 examen

NO.7 When configuring the network interfaces of a checkpoint Gateway, the direction can be defined as
Internal or external.
What is meaning of interface leading to DMZ?
A.It defines the DMZ Interface since this information is necessary for Content Control.
B.Using restricted Gateways, this option automatically turns off the counting of IP Addresses originating
from this interface
C.When selecting this option.Ann-Spoofing is configured automatically to this net.
D.Activating this option automatically turns this interface to External
Answer: A

certification CheckPoint   certification 156-215.71   156-215.71

NO.8 If you check the box Use Aggressive Mode in the IKE Properties dialog box, the standard:
A.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange Is replaced by a six-packet exchange
B.three-packet IKE Phase 2 exchange is replaced by a two-packet exchange
C.six-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a three-packet exchange
D.three-packet IKE Phase 1 exchange is replaced by a six-packet exchange
Answer: C

CheckPoint   156-215.71 examen   156-215.71   156-215.71 examen